In this Post you will be able to take quiz containing important MCQs for NEET Exam and topic covered in this Quiz will be Pathology. Correct Answers are Marked in Bold and Red colour.
Pathology Multiple Choice Questions for NEET
1. Process of migration of leukocytes through the endothelium is through:
A. Phagocytosis
B. Pinocytosis
C. Diapedesis
D. Apoptosis
Answer: C
2. Bridging necrosis is characteristically seen in:
A. Acute hepatitis
B. Chronic hepatitis
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above
Answer: C
3. Which of the following would be the best morphological feature to distinguish ulcerative colitis from Crohn’s disease?
A. Diffuse distributions of pseudopolyps
B. Mucosal edema
C. Crypt abscesses
D. Lymphoid aggregates in the mucosa
Answer: A
4. Autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease is characterised by the altered expression of:
A. Polycystin
B. Nephrocystin
C. Uromodulin
D. Fibrocystin
Answer: D
5. Which is not a tumour suppressor gene ?
A. WT-1
B. Rb
C. p53
D. RAS
Answer: D
6. Michaelis Gutmann bodies are seen in
A. >Xanthogranulomatous
B. >pyelonephritis
C. >Malakoplakia
D. Nail patella syndrome
Answer: C
7. D.I.C. is seen in :
A. >Acute promyelocytic leukemia
B. >Acute myelomonocytic leukemia
C. >CMC
D. >Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
Answer: A
8. Interleukin responsible for Pyrexia is:
A. IL1
B. IL3
C. IL4
D. IL8
Answer: A
9. Liquefactive necrosis is seen in:
A. Heart
B. Brain
C. Lungs
D. Spleen
Answer: B
10. More than 90% patients of CREST syndrome with the limited cutaneous form of this disorder make which of the following autoantibodies?
A. Anti-centromere
B. Anti-DNA topoisomerase l
C. Anti-double-stranded DNA
D. Anti-Golgi
Answer: A
11. 1 to 2 mm haemorrhages in skin are known as:
A. Micro bleed
B. Petechiae
C. Purpura
D. None of the above
Answer: B
12. ‘Flare’ in Triple response is mediated by :
A. Axon reflex
B. Arteriolar dilation
C. Histamine release
D. Local hormones
Answer: A
13. Medial calcification is seen in A. Atherosclerosis
B. Arteriolosclerosis
C. Monckebergs sclerosis
D. Dissecting aneurysm
Answer: C
14. Changes seen in atherosclerotic plaque at the time of rupture are all except
A. Thin fibrosis cap
B. Multiple foam cap
C. Smooth muscle cell hypertrophy
D. Cell debris
Answer: C
15. Atheromatous changes of blood vessels
affects early in A. Kidney
B. Heart
C. Liver
D. Spleen
Answer: B
16. Which of the following is a non-modifiable risk factor for CHD
A. Diabetes
B. Smoking
C. Hypertension
D. Old age
Answer: D
17. Most common cause of dissecting hematoma is because of
A. Hypertension
B. Marfan’s
C. Iatrogenic
D. Kawasaki
Answer: A
18. Cystic medial necrosis is seen in
A. Marfans syndrome
B. Friedrichs ataxia Pattern
C. Downs syndrome
D. Kawasaki disease
Answer: A
19. Small vessel vasculitis are
A. Classical PAN
B. Wegner’s granulomatosis
C. Giant cell arteritis
D. All
Answer: B
20. All is true about Giant cell arteritis except ?
A. Involves large to small sized areteries
B. Granulomatous inflammation
C. Most commonly involved artery is abdominal aorta
D. Segmental nature of the involvement
Answer: C
21. Raynaud’s phenomenon what change is seen in vessels initial stage
A. No change (Fibrinoid, Thrombosis)
B. Thrombosis
C. Fibrinoid necrosis
D. Hyaline sclerosis
Answer: A
22. The tissue of origin of the Kaposi’s sarcoma is ?
A. Lymphoid
B. Vascular
C. Neural
D. Muscular
Answer: B
23. Concentric hypertrophy of left ventricle is seen in
A. Cong. bicuspid aortic valve
B. MS
C. AR
D. HOCM
Answer: A
24. Which one of the following sets of components of cigarette smoke is a causal agent of coronary artery disease
A. Tar and nicotine
B. Nicotine and carbon monoxide and tar
C. Carbon monoxide and Tar
D. Carbon dioxide
Answer: B
25. Earliest histological change in MI
A. Macrophage infiltration
B. Neutrophilic infiltration
C. Waviness of fibers
D. Coagulative necrosis
Answer: C
26. 7 day old MI the most sensitive biochemical marker
A. Troponin I T
B. CPK MB
C. LDH
D. Myoglobin
Answer: A
27. Which is not seen in Aschoff bodies
A. Giant cells
B. Aschoff cells
C. Fibroblasts
D. Polymorphonuclear cells
Answer: D
28. Vegetations in libman sacendocarditis are ?
A. Large and fragile
B. Small warty along the line of closure of valve
C. Small or medium sized on either or both sides of valve
D. Small bland vegetations
Answer: C
29. Causes of constrictive pericarditis is/are ?
A. T.B.
B. SLE
C. Brucellosis
D. a and b
Answer: D
30. Hypertrophy is A. Increase in cell number
B. Increase in cell size
C. Decrease in cell number
D. Decrease in cell size
Answer: B
31. Physiological hyperplasia and hypertrophy are seen simultaneously in
A. Uterus in pregnancy
B. Skeletal muscle in atheleteas
C. Breast at puberty
D. a and c
Answer: D
32. The sign of reversible injury in a case of alcoholic liver disease
A. Loss of cell membrane
B. Nuclear karyolysis
C. Cytoplasmic vacuole
D. Pyknosis
Answer: C
33. In cell death, myelin figures, are derived from
A. Nucleus
B. Cell membrane
C. Cytoplasm
D. Mitochondria
Answer: B
34. Enzyme that protects the brain from free radical injury is
A. Myeloperoxidase
B. Superoxide dismutase
C. MAO
D. Hydroxylase
Answer: B
35. MI is a type of
A. Coagulative necrosis
B. Liquefactive necrosis
C. Caseous necrosis
D. Fat necrosis
Answer: A
36. Fat necrosis is common in
A. Omentum
B. Breast
C. Retroperitoneal fat
D. All of the above
Answer: D
37. Programmed cell death is known as
A. Cytolysis
B. Apoptosis
C. Necrosis
D. Proptosis
Answer: B
38. In apoptosis, cytochrome C acts through
A. Apaf 1
B. Bcl-2
C. FADD
D. TNF
Answer: A
39. Which is activated for nuclear fragmentation in apoptosis
A. Caspases
B. Apaf – 1
C. Oxygen free radicals
D. All
Answer: A
40. In apoptosis which is/are involved
A. Apaf-1
B. Bc12
C. Caspases
D. All
Answer: D
41. Annexin Visa marker of
A. Apoptosis
B. Necrosis
C. Artherosclerosis
D. Inflammation
Answer: A
42. Dystrophic calcification is seen in ?
A. Milk alkali syndrome
B. Atheromatous plaque
C. Hyperparathyroidism
D. Vitamin A intoxication
Answer: B
43. Calcification of soft tissues without any disturbance of calcium metabolism is called
A. Ionotropic calcification
B. Monotropic calcification
C. Dystrophic calcification
D. Calcium induced calcification
Answer: C
44. True about gastric lymphoma
A. Non Hodgkins lymphoma commonest variety
B. Diagnosis is made by biopsy
C. H-Pylori has direct relationship
D. All
Answer: D
45. Most common site of GIST is
A. Ileum
B. Esophagus
C. Colon
D. Stomach
Answer: D
46. Which of the following markers is specific for gastro-intestinal stomal tumor (GIST)
A. CD 117
B. CD 34
C. CD 23
D. S-100
Answer: A
47.Aganglionic segment is encountered in which part of colon in case of Hirschsprung disease ?
A. Distal to dilated segment
B. In Whole colon
C. Proximal to dilated segment
D. In the dilated segment
Answer: A
48. Multiple epidermoid cysts are seen in
A. Turcot’s syndrome
B. Gardner’s syndrome
C. Peutz-Jegher syndrome
D. Familial polyposis coli
Answer: B
49. Features of Peutz-Jeghers syndrome are all except?
A. Autosomal dominant
B. Mucocutaneous pigmentation
C. Hamartomatous polyp
D. High risk of malignacy
Answer: D
50. The features of crohns disease are all except ?
A. Lymphoid hyperplasia
B. Skin lesion
C. Transmural involvement
D. Crypt Abscess
Answer: A
51. Female is affected, male is not. Disease is autosomal dominant, what is the chance in children?
A. 50% affected
B. 25% affected
C. 75% affected
D. All affected
Answer: A
52. Chance of having cystic fibrosis if only one parent is affected and other is normal
A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 70%
D. 80%
Answer: B
53. True statement about inheritance of an X linked recessive trait is
A. 50% of boys of carrier mother are affected
B. 50% of girls of diseased father are carrier
C. Father transmits disease to the son
D. Mother transmits the disease to the daughter
Answer: A
54. Normal female, whose father was colour blind married a normal man. What are the chances of colour blindness in son
A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. No chance
Answer: B
55. The inheritance pattern of familial Retinoblastomas is
A. Autosomal recessive
B. Autosomal dominant
C. X-linked dominant
D. X-linked recessive
Answer: B
56. Male to male transmission is seen in
A. Autosomal dominant diseases
B. Autosomal recessive
C. X-linked dominant
D. M itochondrial disease
Answer: A
57. Single gene disorder which does not follow mendelian inheritance
A. Sickle cell anemia
B. Down syndrome
C. Fragile X-syndrome
D. Retinoblastoma
Answer: C
58. Transport of lipids from the intestine to other tissues is by
A. Chylomicrons
B. LDL
C. HDL
D. VI DL
Answer: A
59. Which is not a feature of Downs syndrome
A. Clinodactyly
B. Pigmented birth marks
C. Hypotonia
D. Respiratory tract Infections
Answer: B
60. Following injury to a blood vessel, immediate haemostasis is achieved by
A. Fibrin deposition
B. Vasoconstriction
C. Platelet adhesion
D. Thrombosis
Answer: B
61. Lines of Zahn occur in
A. Postmortem clot
B. Infarct
C. Embolus
D. Coralline thrombus
Answer: D
62. Anemia with reticulocytosis is seen in
A. Hemolysis
B. Iron deficiency anemia
C. Vitamin B12 deficiency
D. Aplastic anemia
Answer: A
63. Intravascular hemolysis occurs in
A. Hereditary spherocytosis
B. Acute G6PD
C. Sickle cell ds
D. b and c
Answer: D
64. Maximum spherocytes is seen in
A. Autoimmune haemolytic anemia
B. Vit B12 deficiency
C. Aplastic anemia
D. None
Answer: A
65. The primary defect which leads to sickle cell anemia is
A. An abnormality in porphyrin part of hemoglobin
B. Replacement of glutamate by valine in n-chain of HbA
C. A nonsence mutation in the I3-chain of HbA
D. Substitution of valine by glutamate in the a-chain of HbA
Answer: B
66. Which is not a feature of paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria
A. Increased LAP score
B. Thrombosis
C. Thrombocytopenia
D. Hemolysis
Answer: A
67. Cold agglutinin is
A. IgG
B. IgM
C. IgA
D. IgD
Answer: B
68. Response to iron in iron deficiency anaemia is denoted by
A. Restoration of enzymes
B. Reticulocytosis
C. Increase in iron binding capacity
D. Increase in hemoglobin
Answer: B
69. Megaloblastic anemia is seen in ?
A. ileal resection
B. Crohn’s disease
C. Intestinal lymphatic ectasia
D. a and b
Answer: D
70. The anaemia associated with leukaemia is ?
A. Iron deficiency
B. Megaloblastic type
C. Myelophthisic type
D. All of above
Answer: C
71. Schistocyte is/are found in
A. TTP
B. DIC
C. Severe iron deficiency
D. All
Answer: D
72. Helmet cells are characteristic of anemia of?
A. Hemolytic uremic syndrome
B. Polysplenia
C. Spherocytosis
D. Acanthocytosis
Answer: A
73. Gamma gandy bodies are seen in all except ?
A. Cirrhosis with portal hypertension
B. Chronic myeloid leukemia
C. Sickle cell anemia
D. Thalassemia
Answer: D
74. Increased permeability in acute inflammation is due to
A. Histamine
B. IL-2
C. TGF-P
D. FGF
Answer: A
75. which of the following does not belong to the family of selectin?
A. P selectin
B. L selectin
C. A selectin
D. E selectin
Answer: C
76. Cell-matrix adhesions are mediated by?
A. Cadherins
B. Integrins
C. Selectins
D. Calmodulin
Answer: B
78. Maximum collagen in wound healing is seen at
A. End of first week
B. End of second week
C. End of third week
D. End of 2 months
Answer: B
79. Chemotaxis is mediated by
A. Histamine
B. Leukotriene B4 and C5a
C. Leukotriene C4 and C3a
D. Bradykinin
Answer: B
80. Following injection of lymphokines, the same class of immunoglobulin are produced. This is to be referred as
A. Group switching
B. Clonal selection
C. Hybridisation
D. Class switching
Answer: B
81. Most potent stimulator of Naïve T-cells
A. Mature dentritic cells
B. Follicular dentritic cells
C. Macrophages
D. B-cell
Answer: A
82. True about MHC-class II
A. Not involved in innate immunity
B. Cytotoxic T-cell involved
C. Present in nucleated cells
D. All
Answer: A
83. Common variable hypogammaglobulinemia shows ?
A. Decreased B cell count
B. Increased B cell count
C. Compliment opsinization
D. Neutropenia
Answer: C
84. Major fibril protein in Primary Amyloidosis is
A. AL
B. AA
C. Transthyretin
D. Procalcitonin
Answer: A
85. Which type of Amyloidosis is caused by mutation of the transthyretin protein ?
A. Familial Mediterranean fever
B. Familial amyloidotic polyneuropathy
C. Dialysis associated amyloidosis
D. Prion protein associated amyloidosis
Answer: B
86. Amyloidosis is most commonly seen in ?
A. Maturity onset DM
B. Type I DM
C. Type II DM
D. HTN
Answer: C
87. Serum amyloid associated protein, found in ?
A. Alzheimer’s disease
B. Chronic inflammatory states
C. Chronic renal failure
D. Malignant hypertension
Answer: B
88. Hamartoma is
A. Malignant tumor
B. Metastatic tissue
C. Development malformation
D. Hemorrhage in vessel
Answer: C
89. Overgrowth of a skin structure at a localised region
A. Hamartoma
B. Malignant tumor
C. Choriostoma
D. All
Answer: A
90. Excessive fibrosis in tumor in called
A. Anaplasia
B. Metaplasia
C. Desmoplasia
D. Dysplasia
Answer: C
91. When stem cells transforms to form cells characteristic of other tissues, the process is called as
A. De-differentiation
B. Re-differentiation
C. Trans-differentiation
D. Sub-differentiation
Answer: C
92. Carcinoma of lung, breast marker is
A. CEA
B. AFP
C. 11CG
D. CA-15-3
Answer: A
93. AFP is raised in
A. Yolk sac tumor
B. Seminoma
C. Teratoma
D. a and c
Answer: D
94. Elevated CA-125 are seen in
A. Abdominal TB
B. Ca cervix
C. Endometriosis
D. All
Answer: D
95. The tumor suppressor gene P53 induces cell arrest at
A. M phase
B. S – G2 phase
C. G1 – S phase
D. Go – phase
Answer: C
96. Major contribution to cachexia with advanced cancer?
A. Catherin
B. Histamine
C. Interferon
D. Tumour-necrosis-factor (TNF)
Answer: D
97.Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome is characterized by ?
A. Microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia
B. Positive Coomb’s test
C. Thrombocytopenia
D. a and c
Answer: D
98. All are features of haemolytic uremic syndrome, except
A. Hyperkalaemia
B. Anaemia
C. Renal microthrombi
D. Neuro psychiatric disturbances
Answer: D
99. In DIC, following are seen except
A. Fibrinogen decreased
B. Thrombocytopenia
C. Normal APTT
D. PT elevation
Answer: C
100. Shelf life of blood with CPDA A. 2 weeks
B. 3 weeks
C. 5 weeks
D. 8 weeks
Answer: C
101. Which of the following is not true about idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura?
A. Antibodies of IgM class
B. Autoantibodies to Gp IIb/ Ilia or IB IX
C. Increased megakaryocytes in bone marrow
D. Spleen is normal in size
Answer: A
102. Macrophage activation syndrome characterized by all except ?
A. Activation of CD 8 + T cells
B. Presence of cytokine storm
C. It is the other name for hemophagocytic lymph histiocytosis
D. Low levels of plasma ferretin
Answer: D
103. HLA associated with rheumatoid arthritis is ?
A. HLA B27
B. HLA DR 4
C. HLABI9
D. HLA DR2
Answer: B
104. Hepatitis B associated with ?
A. Wegener’s granulomatosis
B. Systemic lupus erythematosus
C. Polyarteritis nodosa
D. Sjogren syndrome
Answer: C
105. Normal upper limit of CA – 125 is ?
A. 25 U/ ml
B. 45 U/ ml
C. 65 U/ ml
D. 85 U/ ml
Answer: A
106. Which of the following interleukin is secreted by T helper 2 cells?
A. IL 11
B. IL 7
C. IL 1
D. IL 13
Answer: D
107. Atopy in hypersensitivity is ?
A. Systemic type I hypersensitivity
B. Local type I hypersensitivity
C. Systemic type II hypersensitivity
D. Local type II hypersensitivity
Answer: B
108. Inheritance pattern of myotonic
dystrophy is ?
A. Autosomal recessive
B. Autosomal dominant
C. X linked dominant
D. X linked recessive
Answer: B
109. Gene responsible for Wilson disease is situated on which chromosome?
A. Chromosome 11
B. Chromosome 12
C. Chromosome 13
D. Chromosome 14
Answer: C
110. Antischkow cells are ?
A. Modified macrophages
B. Modified neutrophils
C. Modified B cells
D. Modified RBCs
Answer: A
111. Patient with chronic hypertension will show following changes on histology of kidney
A. Hyaline arteriosclerosis
B. Hyperplastic arteriosclerosis
C. Onion skin lesions
D. Vessel lumen dilatation
Answer: A
112. NK cell shows presence of ?
A. CD 44
B. CD 16
C. CD 54
D. CD 32
Answer: B
113. Non professional antigen presenting cell is A/E ?
A. Endothelial cell
B. Epidermal cell
C. Fibroblasts
D. Red blood cells
Answer: D
114. Blood is stored at what temperature in blood bank?
A. -2 to -4 degrees Celsius
B. -2 to 0 degrees Celsius
C. 1 to 6 degrees Celsius
D. 6 to 12 degrees Celsius
Answer: C
115. Birbeck granules in cytoplasm is seen in ?
A. Langerhans cell histiocytosis
B. Hodgkin’s lymphoma
C. Non hodgkins lymphoma
D. Gastrointestinal stromal tumor
Answer: A
116. Reticulocytes are stained by ?
A. Supravital stain
B. Purssian blue stain
C. H and E stain
D. Reticulin stain
Answer: A
117. Most common type of Hodgkin’s lymphoma is ?
A. Lymphocyte predominant
B. Lymphocyte depletion
C. Nodular sclerosis
D. Mixed cellularity
Answer: C
118. Most common site for eosinophilic granuloma is?
A. Radius
B. Skull
C. Lumbar vertebra
D. Femur
Answer: B
119. Replacement of columnar epithelium in respiratory tract to squamous epithelium is ?
A. Hyperplasia
B. Hypoplasia
C. Metaplasia
D. None of the above
Answer: C
120. Which is the best marker of SLE ?
A. Anti Sm antibodies
B. Anti dsDNA antibodies
C. Anti histone antibodies
D. Anti Ro Antibodies
Answer: B
121. Most common cause of death in amyloidosis is ?
A. Heart failure
B. Renal failure
C. Sepsis
D. None
Answer: A
122. What is true about ulcerative colitis ?
A. Involves rectum and then whole colon backwards
B. Involves only colon
C. Skip lesions seen
D. Ileum not involved
Answer: A
123. Execution caspases of apoptosis are ?
A. Caspase 1 & 3
B. Caspase 3 & 5
C. Caspase 1 & 5
D. Caspase 3 & 7
Answer: D
124. Neurofibromatosis shows which of the following mode of inheritance ?
A. AD
B. AR
C. X linked dominant
D. X linked recessive
Answer: A
125. Most common site of glomus tumor is ?
A. Under fingernails
B. Under toenails
C. Neck
D. Axilla
Answer: A
126. Normal reticulocyte count in new-born is
A. 0 – 1%
B. 1 – 1.5%
C. 3 – 6%
D. 6 – 9 %
Answer: C
127. BRCA2 not associated with
A. breast cancer
B. Prostate cancer
C. Ovarian cancer
D. Vulval cancer
Answer: D
128. Which of the following is not a large vessel vasculitiis ?
A. Takayasu arteritis
B. Cogan syndrome
C. Chrug strauss syndrome
D. Giant cell arteritis
Answer: C
129. Trauma to breast causes which type of necrosis ?
A. Coagualtive necrosis
B. Liquefactive necrosis
C. Caseous necrosis
D. Fat necrosis
Answer: D
130. Inhibin is tumor marker for ?
A. Granulosa cell tumor
B. Malignant melanoma
C. Prolactinoma
D. Breast carcinoma
Answer: A
131. Following statement is true for haemophilia patients?
A. All Females are carriers and all males are affected
B. All Males are carriers and all females are affected
C. Females are mostly carriers and all males are affected
D. Males are mostly carriers and all females are affected
Answer: C
132. Which worm causes myocarditis ?
A. Trichuris
B. Trichinella
C. Enterobius
D. Strogyloides
Answer: B
133. Giant platelets are seen in ?
A. Bernard soulier syndrome
B. vWD
C. Polycythemia rubra vera
D. Leukemia
Answer: A
134. LE cell is seen in ?
A. Lupus erythmatosus
B. Lupus vulgaris
C. HNPCC
D. Medullary carcinoma of thyroid
Answer: A
135. Pelger Huet anamoly shows presence of ?
A. Hyposegmented neutrophil
B. Hypersegmented neutrophil
C. Unsegmented neutrophil
D. None of the above
Answer: A
136. Sentinel lymph node biopsy is used for ?
A. Melanoma
B. Basal cell carcinoma
C. Squamous cell carcionoma
D. Thyroid carcinoma
Answer: A
137. Interleukin 2 is produced by
A. T helper cells 1
B. T helper cells 2
C. Natural killer cells
D. Basophils
Answer: A
138. Popcorn cells are seen in which variety of Hodgkin’s disease ?
A. Nodular sclerosis
B. Mixed cellularity
C. Lymphocyte predominant
D. Lymphocyte depletion
Answer: C
139. Shape of birbeck granules is ?
A. Tennis racket
B. Hockey stick
C. Bat
D. Ball
Answer: A
140. Lipid peroxidation of polyunsaturated lipids of subcellular membranes produces ?
A. Lipofuscin
B. Hemosiderin
C. Both of above
D. None of above
Answer: A
141. Paraneoplastic syndrome Hypercalcemia of malignancy, is produced due to ectopic production of which hormone by lymphomas ?
A. PTHrP
B. 1,25 dihydroxyvitamin D
C. PGE2
D. Parathormone
Answer: B
142. HLA B51 is associated with ?
A. Behcet’s disease
B. Chrug strauss syndrome
C. Microscopic polyangitis
D. Polyarteritis nodosa
Answer: A
143. PT is used to test ?
A. Extrinsic and common pathway
B. Intrinsic and common pathway
C. Intrinsic pathway
D. Extrinsic pathwa
Answer: A
144. Which of the following is not a hereditary disease?
A. Neurofibromatosis
B. Cretinism
C. Huntingtons disease
D. Hereditary spherocytosis
Answer: B
145. Point mutaton in which protooncogene is responsible for the development of gastrointestinal stromal tumour
A. KIT
B. ALK
C. RET
D. FLT3
Answer: A
146. Carcinoembryonic antigen is raised in which of the following non neoplastic conditions
A. Hepatitis
B. Pancreatitis
C. Haemolytic anaemia
D. Ulcerative colitis
Answer: B
147. Under Blood safety programme compulsory tests done are all except ?
A. HIV
B. VDRL
C. Malaria
D. Hepatitis E
Answer: D
148. EBV receptor mimics ?
A. CD 20
B. CD 21
C. CD 22
D. CD 23
Answer: B
149. Leukocyte adhesion to endothelium is mediated by all except ?
A. L selectin
B. E selectin
C. VCAM 1
D. VCAM 4
Answer: D
150. Boys are more likely to be affected by which genetic disorders ?
A. AD
B. AR
C. X linked dominant
D. X linked recessive
Answer: D
151. Inceased accumulation of fluid in the interstitial space is described as ?
A. Edema
B. Effusion
C. Transudate
D. Exudate
Answer: A
152. Classic example of missense mutation ?
A. Thalassemia
B. Sickle cell disease
C. Sideroblastic anemia
D. Hemochromatosis
Answer: B
153. Matrix metalloproteinases is ?
A. Cathepsin
B. Zn metalloproteinases
C. Cu metalloproteinases
D. Cd metalloproteinases
Answer: A
154. Tau protein seen in ?
A. Alzhiemer’s disease
B. Lewy body dementia
C. Picks disease
D. Amylodosis
Answer: A
155. The phenomenon by which the cancer cells are able to sustain and proliferate under adverse conditions of hypoxia is ?
A. Warburg
B. Wanton
C. Wormian
D. Wolf
Answer: A
156. Defect of Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia is ?
A. Gp1Ib-IlIa
B. GpIIIa-I lb
C. GpIla-Illb
D. Gpfilb-I la
Answer: A
157. Metastatic calcification is characterized by ?
A. Hypercalcemia
B. Hypocalcemia
C. Eucalcemia
D. None of the above
Answer: A
158. Most important growth factors in angiogenesis ?
A. PDGF
B. TGF alpha
C. TGF beta
D. VEGF
Answer: D
159. Necrosis with cell bodies retained as ghost cells is ?
A. Coagulative necrosis
B. Liquefactive
C. Caseous
D. None
Answer: A
160. Cells responsible for GVHD is ?
A. Immunocompetent T cell donor
B. Immunocompetent T Cell recipient
C. Immunocompetent B cell donor
D. Immunocompetent B cell donor
Answer: A
161. Flow cytometry is done on
A. Polycythaemia
B. Thrombocytosis
C. Basophil
D. Lymphocytes
Answer: D
162. Person having heterozygous sickle cell trait is protected from infection of:
A. P. falciparum
B. P. vivax
C. Pneumococcus
D. Salmonella
Answer: A
163. Sequence of events in acute inflammation ?
A. Vasodilatation → Stasis → Transient vasoconstriction → Increased permeability
B. Transient vasoconstriction → Stasis → Vasodilatation → Increased permeability
C. Transient vasoconstriction → Vasodilatation → Stasis → Increased permeability
D. Transient vasoconstriction →Vasodilatation → Increased permeability → Stasis
Answer: D
164. Gene silencing RNA ?
A. rRNA
B. tRNA
C. miRNA
D. None
Answer: C
165. All are obstructive lung disease except
A. Emphysema
B. Interstitial fibrosis
C. Asthma
D. Bronchitis
Answer: B
166.Centrilobular necrosis of liver may be seen with?
A. Phosphorus
B. Arsenic
C. CCI4
D. Ethanol
Answer: C
167. During angiogenesis recruitment of pericytes and periendothelial cells is due to
A. VEGF & PDGF
B. Angiopoietins, TGF & PDGF
C. TGF, VEFG & PDGF
D. VEGF, IL-6
Answer: B
168. Heart failure cells are ?
A. Lipofuscin granules in cardiac cells
B. Pigmented alveolar macrophages
C. Pigmented pancreatic acinar cells
D. Pigment cells seen in liver
Answer: B
169. All are true about Polycythaemia vera except
A. Increased vit B12
B. Decrease LAP score
C. Leucocytosis
D. Increased platelets
Answer: B
170. Intracorpuscular hemolytic anemia is seen in ?
A. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
B. TIP
C. Thalassemia
D. Infection
Answer: C
171. Gilbert syndrome, true all except ?
A. Causes cirrhosis
B. Autosomal dominant
C. Normal liver function test
D. Normal histology
Answer: A
172. Flexner-Winter Steiner rosette is seen in
A. Hepatoblastoma
B. Nephroblastoma
C. Neuroblastoma
D. Retinoblastoma
Answer: D
173. Band test is done in ?
A. RA
B. SLE
C. Scleroderma
D. PAN
Answer: B
174. Angelman syndrome is due to
A. Digenic inheritance
B. Inversion
C. Uniparental disomy
D. Mitochondrial disorder
Answer: C
175. Organelle where H202 is produced and destroyed is?
A. Peroxisome
B. Lysosome
C. Golgi body
D. Ribosome
Answer: A
176. Increased permeability in acute inflammation is due to?
A. Histamine
B. IL-2
C. TGF-(3
D. FGF
Answer: A
177. Not true about hereditary spherocytosis
A. Defect in ankyrin
B. Decreased MCV
C. Decreased MCHC
D. Reticulocytosis
Answer: C
178. Mantle cell lymphomas are positive for all of the following, except ?
A. CD 23
B. CD 20
C. CD 5
D. CD 43
Answer: A
179. Gastric carcinoma is associated with all EXCEPT ?
A. Inactivation of p53
B. Over expression of C-erb
C. Over expression of C-met
D. Activation of RAS
Answer: D
180. Irreversible injury in myocardium occurs at ?
A. 2 minutes
B. 30 minutes
C. 2 hours
D. 5 hours
Answer: B
181. Bone marrow finding in myelofibrosis ?
A. Dry tap (hypocellular)
B. Megaloblastic cells
C. Microcytic cells
D. Thrombocytosis18
Answer: A
182. Schiller- Duval bodies is seen in
A. Choriocarcinoma
B. Embryonal cell Ca
C. Endodermal sinus tumour
D. Immature teratoma
Answer: C
183. A/E are involved in MEN type II A ?
A. Parathyroid
B. Adrenal
C. Thyroid
D. Pituitary
Answer: D
184. All are good prognostic factors for neuroblastoma except
A. Trk-A expression absent
B. Absence of 1 p loss
C. Absence of 17 p gain
D. Absence of 11 q loss
Answer: A
185. Eosinophilia in necrosed tissue is due to
A. Coagulation of proteins
B. Denaturation of enzymes
C. Denaturation of protein
D. Mitochondrial damage
Answer: C
186. Macrophages are converted to epithelioid cells by which cytokine ?
A. IL-2
B. IFN-y
C. TNF-a
D. TGF-(3
Answer: B
187. The professional antigen presenting cells ?
A. B cells
B. Dendritic cells
C. T cells
D. NK cells
Answer: B
188. All are growth promoting oncogenes except ?
A. FGF
B. TGF-a
C. TGF-p
D. PDGF
Answer: C
189. Hyperplastic arteriolitis with nerotizing arteriolitis is seen in ?
A. Buerger’s disease
B. Benign hypertension
C. Malignant hypertension
D. Diabetes
Answer: C
190. Fibrosis is due to ?
A. TGF
B. TNF
C. IL – 7
D. IL – 10
Answer: A
191. In sickle cell anemia all are true except
A. Sickle cells
B. Target cells
C. Howell jolly bodies
D. Ringed sideroblast
Answer: D
192. Linitis plastica is a type of ?
A. Plastic like lining of stomach
B. Diffuse carcinoma of stomach
C. Benign ulcer
D. GIST
Answer: B
193. Microvesicular fatty liver is caused by ?
A. DM
B. Valproate
C. Starvation
D. IBD
Answer: B
194. Localised langerhans cells histiocytosis affecting head & neck is ?
A. Letterer-siwe disease
B. Pulmonary langerhans cell histiocytosis
C. Hand-schuller-christian disease
D. Eosinophilic granuloma
Answer: D
195. Which cytokine activate macrophages ?
A. IL-8
B. IFN-y
C. PAF
D. Leukotriene B4
Answer: B
.
196. Syphilitic aneurysm mostly involve ?
A. Arch of aorta
B. Descending aorta
C. Abdominal aorta above the renal arteries
D. Abdominal aorta below the renal arteries
Answer: A
197. Hurthle cell carcinoma is a variant of ?
A. Medullary carcinoma
B. Papillary carcinoma
C. Follicular carcinoma
D. Anaplastic carcinoma
Answer: C
198. HLA is located on ?
A. Short arm of chr-6
B. Long arm of chr-6
C. Short arm of chr-3
D. Long arm of chr-3
Answer: A
199.Classification of aortic dissection depends upon?
A. Cause of dissection
B. Level of aorta affected
C. Percentage of aorta affected
D. None
Answer: B
200. Thalassemia gives protection against ?
A. Filaria
B. Kala-azar
C. Malaria
D. Leptospirosis
Answer: C
201. Maltoma is positive for?
A. CD 3
B. CD 10
C. CD 23
D. CD 5
Answer: C
202. Terminal stage of pneumonia is
A. Congestion
B. Red hepatization
C. Gray hepatization
D. Resolution
Answer: D
203. Intestinal angiodysplasia involves ?
A. AV malformation
B. Cavernous hemangioma
C. Capillary hemangioma
D. Malignant tumor
Answer: A
204. Hepatitis B associated with ?
A. Wegener’s granulomatosis
B. Systemic lupus erythmatosus
C. Polyarteritis nodosa
D. Sjogren syndrome
Answer: C
205. Normal upper limit of CA – 125 is ?
A. 25 U/ ml
B. 45 U/ ml
C. 65 U/ ml
D. 85 U/ ml
Answer: A
206. Which of the following interleukin is secreted by T helper 2 cells?
A. IL 11
B. IL 7
C. IL 1
D. IL 13
Answer: D
207. Atopy in hypersensitivity is ?
A. Systemic type I hypersensitivity
B. Local type I hypersensitivity
C. Systemic type II hypersensitivity
D. Local type II hypersensitivity
Answer: B
208. Inheritance pattern of myotonic dystrophy is ?
A. Autosomal recessive
B. Autosomal dominant
C. X linked dominant
D. X linked recessive
Answer: B
209. Gene responsible for Wilson disease is situated on which chromosome?
A. Chromosome 11
B. Chromosome 12
C. Chromosome 13
D. Chromosome 14
Answer: C
210. Antischkow cells are ?
A. Modified macrophages
B. Modified neutrophils
C. Modified B cells
D. Modified RBCs
Answer: A
211. Patient with chronic hypertension will show following changes on histology of kidney
A. Hyaline arteriosclerosis
B. Hyperplastic arteriosclerosis
C. Onion skin lesions
D. Vessel lumen dilatation
Answer: A
212. NK cell shows presence of ?
A. CD 44
B. CD 16
C. CD 54
D. CD 32
Answer: B
213. Non professional antigen presenting cell is A/E ?
A. Endothelial cell
B. Epidermal cell
C. Fibroblasts
D. Red blood cells
Answer: D
214. Blood is stored at what temperature in blood bank?
A. -2 to -4 degrees Celsius
B. -2 to 0 degrees Celsius
C. 1 to 6 degrees Celsius
D. 6 to 12 degrees Celsius
Answer: C
215. Birbeck granules in cytoplasm is seen in ?
A. Langerhans cell histiocytosis
B. Hodgkin’s lymphoma
C. Non hodgkins lymphoma
D. Gastrointestinal stromal tumor
Answer: A
216. Reticulocytes are stained by ?
A. Supravital stain
B. Purssian blue stain
C. H and E stain
D. Reticulin stain
Answer: A
217. Most common type of hodgkins lymphoma is ?
A. Lymphocyte predominant
B. Lymphocyte depletion
C. Nodular sclerosis
D. Mixed cellularity
Answer: C
218. Most common site for eosinophilic granuloma is?
A. Radius
B. Skull
C. Lumbar vertebra
D. Femur
Answer: B
219. Replacement of columnar epithelium in respiratory tract to squamous epithelium is ?
A. Hyperplasia
B. Hypoplasia
C. Metaplasia
D. None of the above
Answer: C
220. Which is the best marker of SLE ?
A. Anti Sm antibodies
B. Anti dsDNA antibodies
C. Anti histone antibodies
D. Anti Ro Antibodies
Answer: B
221. Most common cause of death in amyloidosis is ?
A. Heart failure
B. Renal failure
C. Sepsis
D. None
Answer: A
222. What is true about ulcerative colitis ?
A. Involves rectum and then whole colon backwards
B. Involves only colon
C. Skip lesions seen
D. Ileum not involved
Answer: A
223. Execution caspases of apoptosis are ?
A. Caspase 1 & 3
B. Caspase 3 & 5
C. Caspase 1 & 5
D. Caspase 3 & 7
Answer: D
224. Neurofibromatosis shows which of the following mode of inheritance ?
A. AD
B. AR
C. X linked dominant
D. X linked recessive
Answer: A
225. Most common site of glomus tumor is ?
A. Under fingernails
B. Under toenails
C. Neck
D. Axilla
Answer: A
226. Normal reticulocyte count in newborn is
A. 0 – 1%
B. 1 – 1.5%
C. 3 – 6%
D. 6 – 9 %
Answer: C
227. BRCA2 not associated with
A. breast cancer
B. Prostate cancer
C. Ovarian cancer
D. Vulval cancer
Answer: D
228. Which of the following is not a large vessel vasculitiis ?
A. Takayasu arteritis
B. Cogan syndrome
C. Chrug strauss syndrome
D. Giant cell arteritis
Answer: C
229. Trauma to breast causes which type of necrosis ?
A. Coagualtive necrosis
B. Liquefactive necrosis
C. Caseous necrosis
D. Fat necrosis
Answer: D
230. Inhibin is tumor marker for ?
A. Granulosa cell tumor
B. Malignant melanoma
C. Prolactinoma
D. Breast carcinoma
Answer: A
231. Following statement is true for hemophilia patients?
A. All Females are carriers and all males are affected
B. All Males are carriers and all females are affected
C. Females are mostly carriers and all males are affected
D. Males are mostly carriers and all females are affected
Answer: C
232. Which worm causes myocarditis ?
A. Trichuris
B. Trichinella
C. Enterobius
D. Strogyloides
Answer: B
233. Giant platelets are seen in ?
A. Bernard soulier syndrome
B. vWD
C. Polycythemia rubra vera
D. Leukemia
Answer: A
234. LE cell is seen in ?
A. Lupus erythmatosus
B. Lupus vulgaris
C. HNPCC
D. Medullary carcinoma of thyroid
Answer: A
235. Pelger Huet anamoly shows presence of ?
A. Hyposegmented neutrophil
B. Hypersegmented neutrophil
C. Unsegmented neutrophil
D. None of the above
Answer: A
236. Sentinel lymph node biopsy is used for ?
A. Melanoma
B. Basal cell carcinoma
C. Squamous cell carcionoma
D. Thyroid carcinoma
Answer: A
237. Interleukin 2 is produced by
A. T helper cells 1
B. T helper cells 2
C. Natural killer cells
D. Basophils
Answer: A
238. Popcorn cells are seen in which variety of hodgkin’s disease ?
A. Nodular sclerosis
B. Mixed cellularity
C. Lymphocyte predominant
D. Lymphocyte depletion
Answer: C
239. Shape of birbeck granules is ?
A. Tennis racket
B. Hockey stick
C. Bat
D. Ball
Answer: A
240. Lipid peroxidation of polyunsaturated lipids of subcellular membranes produces ?
A. Lipofuscin
B. Hemosiderin
C. Both of above
D. None of above
Answer: A
241. Paraneoplastic syndrome Hypercalcemia of malignancy, is produced due to ectopic production of which hormone by lymphomas ?
A. PTHrP
B. 1,25 dihydroxyvitamin D
C. PGE2
D. Parathormone
Answer: B
242. HLA B51 is associated with ?
A. Behcet’s disease
B. Chrug strauss syndrome
C. Microscopic polyangitis
D. Polyarteritis nodosa
Answer: A
243. PT is used to test ?
A. Extrinsic and common pathway
B. Intrinsic and common pathway
C. Intrinsic pathway
D. Extrinsic pathwa
Answer: A
244. Which of the following is not a hereditary disease?
A. Neurofibromatosis
B. Cretinism
C. Huntingtons disease
D. Hereditary spherocytosis
Answer: B
245. Point mutaton in which protooncogene is responsible for the development of gastrointestinal stromal tumor
A. KIT
B. ALK
C. RET
D. FLT3
Answer: A
246. Carcinoembryonic antigen is raised in which of the following non neoplastic conditions
A. Hepatitis
B. Pancreatitis
C. Hemolytic anemia
D. Ulcerative colitis
Answer: B
247. Under Blood safety programme compulsory tests done are all except ?
A. HIV
B. VDRL
C. Malaria
D. Hepatitis E
Answer: D
248. EBV receptor mimics ?
A. CD 20
B. CD 21
C. CD 22
D. CD 23
Answer: B
249. Leukocyte adhesion to endothelium is mediated by all except ?
A. L selectin
B. E selectin
C. VCAM 1
D. VCAM 4
Answer: D
250. Boys are more likely to be affected by which genetic disorders ?
A. AD
B. AR
C. X linked dominant
D. X linked recessive
Answer: D
251. Inceased accumulation of fluid in the interstitial space is described as ?
A. Edema
B. Effusion
C. Transudate
D. Exudate
Answer: A
252. Classic example of missense mutation ?
A. Thalassemia
B. Sickle cell disease
C. Sideroblastic anemia
D. Hemochromatosis
Answer: B
253. Matrix metalloproteinases is ?
A. Cathepsin
B. Zn metalloproteinases
C. Cu metalloproteinases
D. Cd metalloproteinases
Answer: A
254. Tau protein seen in ?
A. Alzhiemer’s disease
B. Lewy body dementia
C. Picks disease
D. Amylodosis
Answer: A
255. The phenomenon by which the cancer cells are able to sustain and proliferate under adverse conditions of hypoxia is ?
A. Warburg
B. Wanton
C. Wormian
D. Wolf
Answer: A
256. Defect of glanzmann’s thrombosthenia is ?
A. Gp1Ib-IlIa
B. GpIIIa-I lb
C. GpIla-Illb
D. Gpfilb-I la
Answer: A
257. Metastatic calcification is characterized by ?
A. Hypercalcemia
B. Hypocalcemia
C. Eucalcemia
D. None of the above
Answer: A
258. Most important growth factors in angiogenesis ?
A. PDGF
B. TGF alpha
C. TGF beta
D. VEGF
Answer: D
259. Necrosis with cell bodies retained as ghost cells is ?
A. Coagulative necrosis
B. Liquefactive
C. Caseous
D. None
Answer: A
260. Cells responsible for GVHD is ?
A. Immunocompetent T cell donor
B. Immunocompetent T Cell recipient
C. Immunocompetent B cell donor
D. Immunocompetent B cell donor
Answer: A
261. Flow cytometry is done on
A. Polycythemia
B. Thrombocytosis
C. Basophil
D. Lymphocytes
Answer: D
262. Person having heterozygous sickle cell trait is protected from infection of:
A. P. falciparum
B. P. vivax
C. Pneumococcus
D. Salmonella
Answer: A
263. Sequence of events in acute inflammation ?
A. Vasodilatation → Stasis → Transient vasoconstriction → Increased permeability
B. Transient vasoconstriction → Stasis → Vasodilatation → Increased permeability
C. Transient vasoconstriction → Vasodilatation → Stasis → Increased permeability
D. Transient vasoconstriction →Vasodilatation → Increased permeability → Stasis
Answer: D
264. Gene silencing RNA ?
A. rRNA
B. tRNA
C. miRNA
D. None
Answer: C
265. All are obstructive lung disease except
A. Emphysema
B. Interstitial fibrosis
C. Asthma
D. Bronchitis
Answer: B
266.Centrilobular necrosis of liver may be seen with?
A. Phosphorus
B. Arsenic
C. CCI4
D. Ethanol
Answer: C
267. During angiogenesis recruitment of pericytes and periendothelial cells is due to
A. VEGF & PDGF
B. Angiopoietins, TGF & PDGF
C. TGF, VEFG & PDGF
D. VEGF, IL-6
Answer: B
268. Heart failure cells are ?
A. Lipofuscin granules in cardiac cells
B. Pigmented alveolar macrophages
C. Pigmented pancreatic acinar cells
D. Pigment cells seen in liver
Answer: B
269. All are true about Polycythemia vera except
A. Increased vit B12
B. Decrease LAP score
C. Leucocytosis
D. Increased platelets
Answer: B
270. Intracorpuscular hemolytic anemia is seen in ?
A. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
B. TIP
C. Thalassemia
D. Infection
Answer: C
271. Gilbert syndrome, true all except ?
A. Causes cirrhosis
B. Autosomal dominant
C. Normal liver function test
D. Normal histology
Answer: A
272. Flexner-Wintersteiner rossette is seen in
A. Hepatoblastoma
B. Nephroblastoma
C. Neuroblastoma
D. Retinoblastoma
Answer: D
273. Band test is done in ?
A. RA
B. SLE
C. Scleroderma
D. PAN
Answer: B
274. Angelman syndrome is due to
A. Digenic inheritence
B. Inversion
C. Uniparental disomy
D. Mitochondrial disorder
Answer: C
275. Organelle where H202 is produced and destroyed is?
A. Peroxisome
B. Lysosome
C. Golgi body
D. Ribosome
Answer: A
276. Increased permeability in acute inflammation is due to?
A. Histamine
B. IL-2
C. TGF-(3
D. FGF
Answer: A
277. Not true about hereditary spherocytosis
A. Defect in ankyrin
B. Decreased MCV
C. Decreased MCHC
D. Reticulocytosis
Answer: C
278. Mantle cell lymphomas are positive for all of the following, except ?
A. CD 23
B. CD 20
C. CD 5
D. CD 43
Answer: A
279. Gastric carcinoma is associated with all EXCEPT ?
A. Inactivation of p53
B. Over expression of C-erb
C. Over expression of C-met
D. Activation of RAS
Answer: D
280. Irreversible injury in myocardium occurs at ?
A. 2 minutes
B. 30 minutes
C. 2 hours
D. 5 hours
Answer: B
281. Bone marrow finding in myelofibrosis ?
A. Dry tap (hypocellular)
B. Megaloblastic cells
C. Microcytic cells
D. Thrombocytosis18
Answer: A
282. Schiller- Duval bodies is seen in
A. Choriocarcinoma
B. Embryonal cell Ca
C. Endodermal sinus tumour
D. Immature teratoma
Answer: C
283. A/E are involved in MEN type II A ?
A. Parathyroid
B. Adrenal
C. Thyroid
D. Pituitary
Answer: D
284. All are good prognostic factors for neuroblastoma except
A. Trk-A expression absent
B. Absence of 1 p loss
C. Absence of 17 p gain
D. Absence of 11 q loss
Answer: A
285. Eosinophilia in necrosed tissue is due to
A. Coagulation of proteins
B. Denaturation of enzymes
C. Denaturation of protein
D. Mitochondrial damage
Answer: C
286. Macrophages are converted to epitheloid cells by which cytokine ?
A. IL-2
B. IFN-y
C. TNF-a
D. TGF-(3
Answer: B
287. The professional antigen presenting cells ?
A. B cells
B. Dendritic cells
C. T cells
D. NK cells
Answer: B
288. All are growth promoting oncogenes except ?
A. FGF
B. TGF-a
C. TGF-p
D. PDGF
Answer: C
289. Hyperplastic arteriolitis with nerotizing arteriolitis is seen in ?
A. Buerger’s disease
B. Benign hypertension
C. Malignant hypertension
D. Diabetes
Answer: C
290. Fibrosis is due to ?
A. TGF
B. TNF
C. IL – 7
D. IL – 10
Answer: A
291. In sickle cell anemia all are true except
A. Sickle cells
B. Target cells
C. Howell jolly bodies
D. Ringed sideroblast
Answer: D
292. Linitis plastica is a type of ?
A. Plastic like lining of stomach
B. Diffuse carcinoma of stomach
C. Benign ulcer
D. GIST
Answer: B
293. Microvesicular fatty liver is caused by ?
A. DM
B. Valproate
C. Starvation
D. IBD
Answer: B
294. Localised langerhans cells histiocytosis affecting head & neck is ?
A. Letterer-siwe disease
B. Pulmonary langerhans cell histiocytosis
C. Hand-schuller-christian disease
D. Eosinophilic granuloma
Answer: D
295. Which cytokine activate macrophages ?
A. IL-8
B. IFN-y
C. PAF
D. Leukotriene B4
Answer: B
.
296. Syphilitic aneurysm mostly involve ?
A. Arch of aorta
B. Descending aorta
C. Abdominal aorta above the renal arteries
D. Abdominal aorta below the renal arteries
Answer: A
297. Hurthle cell carcinoma is a variant of ?
A. Medullary carcinoma
B. Papillary carcinoma
C. Follicular carcinoma
D. Anaplastic carcinoma
Answer: C
298. HLA is located on ?
A. Short arm of chr-6
B. Long arm of chr-6
C. Short arm of chr-3
D. Long arm of chr-3
Answer: A
299.Classification of aortic dissection depends upon?
A. Cause of dissection
B. Level of aorta affected
C. Percentage of aorta affected
D. None
Answer: B
300. Thalassemia gives protection against ?
A. Filaria
B. Kala-azar
C. Malaria
D. Leptospirosis
Answer: C
301. Maltoma is positive for?
A. CD 3
B. CD 10
C. CD 23
D. CD 5
Answer: C
302. Terminal stage of pneumonia is
A. Congestion
B. Red hepatization
C. Gray hepatization
D. Resolution
Answer: D
303. Intestinal angiodysplasia involves ?
A. AV malformation
B. Cavernous hemangioma
C. Capillary hemangioma
D. Malignant tumor
Answer: A
304. Perifascicular atropy of muscle fibres is seen in?
A. Steroid myopathy
B. Dermatomyositis
C. Inclusion body myositis
D. Nemaline myopathy
Answer: B
305. Marker of glomus tumor?
A. CD-57
B. Cytokeratin
C. S-100
D. CD-34
Answer: A
306. False about wound healing ?
A. Inhibited by infection
B. Inhibited by DM
C. Inhibited by hematoma
D. Inhibited by foreign body
Answer: C
307. Chromosome 22 deletion syndrome is ?
A. Down syndrome
B. Di George syndrome
C. Turner syndrome
D. Klinefelter syndrome
Answer: B
308. Creatinine kinase is elevated in MI after
A. 2 – 4 hrs.
B. 4 – 8 hrs.
C. 12 – 24 hrs
D. > 24 hrs.
Answer: A
309. Blood when stored at 4°C can be kept for ?
A. 7 days
B. 14 days
C. 21 days
D. 28 days
Answer: C
310. AML causing Gum hypertrophy ?
A. M1
B. M2
C. M3
D. M4
Answer: D
311. Type of necrosis in pancreatitis ?
A. Fibrinoid
B. Coagulative
C. Fat
D. Caseous
Answer: C
312. Resolution of inflammation caused by ?
A. TNF Alfa, IL-1 and CRP
B. TNF beta, IL-6 and CRP
C. TNF Alfa, IL 10 and IL 1 receptor antagonist
D. TNF gamma
Answer: C
313. Not a carcinogen for bladder cancer?
A. Benzidine
B. Isopropyl alcohol
C. Acrolein
D. Phenacetin
Answer: B
314. Drug induced lupus antibodies are found in ?
A. Anti-Rho
B. Ds-DNA
C. Anti-Sm
D. Anti-histone antibody
Answer: D
315. Donath landsteiner antibody is seen in?
A. PNH
B. Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinemia
C. Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuri
D. Malaria
Answer: C
316. Cryoprecipitate is useful in?
A. Hemophilia A
B. Thrombosthenia
C. A fibrogenemi a
D. Warfarin reversal
Answer: C
317. DIC is common in which AML
A. Nonocytic (M5)
B. Promyelo cytic (M3)
C. Erythrocytic (M6)
D. Megakaryocytic (M7)
Answer: B
318. Example ofApoptosis is?
A. Councilman Bodies
B. Gamma Gandy Body
C. Russell bodies
D. None
Answer: A
319. Fibrinoid necorsis with neutrophilic infiltration is seen in ?
A. PAN
B. Giant cell arteritis
C. Takayasu arteritis
D. Wegener’s granulomatosis
Answer: A
320. Most common ocular lymphoma ?
A. T-cell lymphoma
B. Hodgkin’s lymphoma
C. B-cell NHL
D. Pre T-cell lymphoma
Answer: C
321. Cytokine causing fever A. IL-6
B. IFN-y
C. IL-18
D. IL-4
Answer: A
322. Normal transferrin is saturated with iron ?
A. 20%
B. 35%
C. 50%
D. 70%
Answer: B
323. All of the following immunohistochemical markers are positive in the neoplatic cells of granulocytic sarcoma, except ?
A. CD45 RO
B. CD 43
C. Myeloperoxidase
D. Lysozyme
Answer: A
324. In glomerulus subendothelial deposits are seen in?
A. Good pasture syndrome
B. IgA nephropathy
C. MPGN type I
D. MPGN type II
Answer: C
325. Thromboangitis obliterans is associated with ?
A. HLA B27
B. HLA – DR4
C. HLA – B5
D. HLA – DR2
Answer: C
326. Which antibodies in mother with SLE is responsible for congenital heart disease in child?
A. Anti-histone
B. Anti-Ro & Anti-LA
C. Anti ds DNA
D. Anti-centromere
Answer: B
327. Xerostomia is seen in all except ?
A. Sjogren syndrome
B. RA
C. Sarcoidosis
D. Midline granuloma
Answer: D
328. True regarding fibromuscular dysplasia are all except
A. Medium size vessels
B. OCPs predispose
C. Aneurysm may occur
D. Irregular hyperplasia
Answer: B
329. Not true about Alport’s syndrome ?
A. X-linked
B. Autosomal dominant
C. Nerve deafness
D. Glomerulonephritis
Answer: B
330. Peliosis hepatis is caused by all except?
A. Analgesics
B. Anabolic steroids
C. OC pills
D. Danazol
Answer: A
331. Pseudo-Pelger-Huet cells or seen in
A. Hairy cell leukemia
B. Multiple myeloma
C. Mylodysplastic syndrome
D. Hodgkin’s lymphoma
Answer: C
332. Acute phase reactants are all except ?
A. C-reactive protein
B. Haptaglobulin
C. Endothelin
D. Fibrinogen
Answer: C
333. All are true about non-bacterial thrombotic endocarditis, except ?
A. Cause emboli
B. Vegetation > 5 mm
C. No inflammatory reaction
D. Locally nondestructive
Answer: B
334. Which one of the following stains is specific forAmyloid?
A. Periodic Acid schif (PAS)
B. Alzerian red
C. Congo red
D. Von – Kossa
Answer: C
335. All are true about Fragile X syndrome except ?
A. Large head
B. Large nose
C. Large ear
D. Large testis
Answer: B
336. Concentric hypertrophy of left ventricle is seen in?
A. Mitral stenosis
B. Hypertension
C. Aortic regurgitation
D. None
Answer: B
337. Which does not cause sideroblastic anaemia?
A. INH
B. Chloramphenicol
C. Myelodysplastic anaemia
D. Mercury
Answer: D
338. Which of the following is not a myeloproliferative disease ?
A. Polycythemia vers
B. Acute myeloid leukemia
C. Chronic myeloid leukemia
D. Essential thrombocytosis
Answer: B
339. All of the following are associated with carcinoma colon except ?
A. Smoking
B. Alcohol
C. Fibre diet
D. Fatty food
Answer: C
340. Which of the following is labile cell ?
A. Cardiac cell
B. Liver parenchymal cell
C. Vascular endothelial cells
D. Surface epithelium
Answer: D
341. Glanzmann thrombasthenia is due to
A. Decreased GpIb
B. Decreased GpIIb/IIIa
C. Anti-GpIIb/IIIa antibodies
D. Inhibition or deficiency of ADAMTS 13
Answer: B
342. Vitamin A is stored in
A. Cells of Ito
B. Hepatocyte
C. Endothelial cell
D. Kupffer cell
Answer: A
343. Apoptotic gene is
A. Bax
B. Bcl2
C. Bclx
D. Mcl
Answer: B
344. Alpha one anti trypsin works by
A. inhibition of trypsin
B. inhibition of trypsinogen
C. inhibition of elastase
D. inhibition of chymotrypsin
Answer: C
345. Which one of the following is an autosomal recessive disorder?
A. Albinism
B. Huntington’s syndrome
C. Marfan’s syndrome
D. Neurofibromatosis-1
Answer: A
346. Fish mouth appearance of valve in RHD is due to
A. Rupture of valve
B. Calcification & fibrosis
C. Hypertrophy of ventricular wall
D. None of the above
Answer: B
347. Follicular lymphoma positivity?
A. Bcl-1
B. Bcl-6
C. Bcl- 2
D. None of the above
Answer: C
348. what is the histological difference between them in Ulcerative colitis & Crohn’s disease?
A. Diffuse distribution of pseudopolyps
B. Mucosal edema
C. Crypt abscess
D. Lymphoid aggregates in the mucosa
Answer: C
349. What is the cause of intracorpuscular defects in hemolysis?
A. Uremic syndrome
B. PCH
C. PNH
D. Portal hypertension
Answer: C
350. Type of necrosis seen in blood vessels due to immune reactions
A. Coagulation
B. Liquefaction
C. Fibrinoid
D. None
Answer: C
351. In a patient with lipoprotein lipase deficiency, which of the following is increased following a fatty meal?
A. Chylomicron
B. LDL
C. HDL
D. Apo-A
Answer: A
352. In Wilson’s disease, there is less urinary excretion of
A. Phosphorus
B. Methyl- Histidine
C. Phosphotyrosine
D. Serine
Answer: B
353. What is the function of IL1?
A. Enhances hematopoiesis
B. Stimulates mast cells
C. Has antiviral properties
D. Endogenous pyrogen
Answer: D
354. CEAP score indicates
a) Atrial disorders
B. Venous disorder
C. Neurological disorde
D. Trauma disorder
Answer: B
355. IL- 1 activated by
A. Capsase 1
B. Capsase 3
C. Capsase 8
D. Capsase 5
Answer: A
356. Parotid mass mixed consistency
A. Pleomorphic adenoma
B. Sebaceous cyst
C. Dermoid cyst
D. All
Answer: A
357. Krabbe’s disease is
A. Deficiency of Beta- galactosylcermidase
B. Deficiency of aryl sulphatase
C. Alpha galactosidase
D. Acid lipase
Answer: A
358. What is the choice of treatment for idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura (ITP)?
A. Blood transfusion
B. Spontaneous recovery
C. IV infusion
D. Splenectomy
Answer: D
359. Most common nephropathy associated with malignaneN is:
A. Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis (FSGS)
B. Minimal change disease
C. IgA nephropathy
D. Membranous glomerulonephritis
Answer: D
360. Which of the following complement factors is a marker of humoral rejection?
A. C3d
B. C3b
C. C4d
D. C5a
Answer: C
361. Most reactive free radical is:
A. Peroxide
B. Carboxyl
C. Hydroxyl
D. Superoxide
Answer: C
362. Alpha-fetoprotein is a tumor marker for
A. Hepato cellular carcinoma
B. Multiple myeloma
C. Seminoma
D. Breast carcinoma
Answer: A
363. Hypercalcemia in sarcoidosis all are true except?
A. Parathormone level is increased
B. PTHrP level is increased
C. Calcitriol level is increased
D. Oral steroids are useful
Answer: A
364. Toll like receptors are seen on?
A. Macrophages
B. Natural killer cells
C. Endothelial cells
D. All of the above
Answer: D
365. Reversible change from on cell type to other is known as
A. Hyperplesia
B. Hypertrophy
C. Metaplesia
D. Dysplasia
Answer: C
366. Gaseous necrosis is seen in
A. CMV infection
B. Staphylococcal infection
C. Treponemal infection
D. HSV infection
Answer: C
367. Substance playing a role in tumour metastasis cascade is
A. Collagenase IV
B. TNF-alpha
C. CD99
D. NM23
Answer: A
368. Rb gene is located on which chromosome?
A. 6
B. 9
C. 13
D. 21
Answer: C
369. Absence of Ultra hepatic bile duct leads to which syndrome?
A. Von Meyenburg Complexes
B. Polycystic Liver Disease
C. Caroli Disease
D. Alagille Syndrome
Answer: D
370. True about Dentigerous cyst:
A. Arises in relation to unerupted teeth
B. It most commonly encroaches maxillary antrum
C. Mandibular third molar is common site
D. Common in mandible
E. All
Answer: A:C:D
371. Vitamin A deficiency leads to metaplasia of?
A. Squamous epithelium
B. Columnar epithelium
C. Both
D. None
Answer: A
372. Nuclei are arranged at the cell periphery in which type of cell?
A. Langhans giant cell
B. Merkel cells
C. NK cells
D. Neutrophils
Answer: A
373. Not true about VEGF is
A. Highly specific for endothelium
B. Hypoxia potentiates its expression
C. Inhibits angiogenesis
D. Helps in tumor metastasis
Answer: C
374. Acute phase reactants are stimulated by
A. IL-6
B. IL-1
C. TNF-a
D. All of the above
Answer: D
375. Lymphotactin is which type of chemokine?
A. C
B. C- C
C. C-X-C
D. C-X3-C
Answer: C
376. Active compound secreted by neutrophills against pathogen is known as?
A. Major basic protein
B. Myeloperoxidase
C. Hydrolase
D. Proteoglycans
Answer: B
377. Hydroxyl ions are destroyed in the body by?
A. Vitamin C
B. Vitamin A
C. Vitamin K
D. Vitamin D
Answer: A
378. Most common cancer to occur in organ transplant patient is?
A. Squamous cell carcinoma
B. Melanoma
C. Lung cancer
D. Colorectal cancer
Answer: A
379. Example of coagulative necrosis is
A. Acute tubular necrosis
B. Stroke
C. Malignant hypertension
D. Acute pancreatitis
Answer: A
380. Trilateral retinoblastoma is?
A. Bilateral Retinoblastoma plus medulloblastoma
B. Bilateral retinoblastoma plus pineoblastoma
C. Bilateral retinoblastoma plus neuroblastoma
D. Bilateral retinoblastoma plus ependymoma
Answer: B
381. What is the first sign of injury?
A. Mitochondrial dysfunction
B. Membrane damage
C. Diminished ATP
D. Release of lysosomal enzymes
Answer: A
382. Salivary schintigraphy is useful in?
A. Monomorphic adenoma
B. Pleomorphic adenoma
C. Sialidinitis
D. Sjogren syndrome
Answer: D
383. Most common site for ectopic thyroid tissue is?
A. Ovaries
B. Lingual
C. In front of hyoid bone
D. Stomach
Answer: B
384. Blebs are found in which type of injury?
A. Reversible
B. Irreversible
C. Both
D. None
Answer: A
385. Hydropic change is due to
A. Accumulation of water intracellularly
B. Fat accumulation intracellularly
C. Lysozyme degeneration
D. Glycogen accumulation intracellularly
Answer: A
386. Sphenoid dysplasia is seen in?
A. NF-1
B. Tuberous sclerosis
C. Sturge-Weber syndrome
D. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
Answer: A
387. Hob nail appearance is seen in
A. Clear cell carcinoma
B. Endodermal sinus tumor
C. HCC
D. Choriocarcinoma
Answer: A
388. Chromosome for MEN2 gene is
A. 11q13
B. 13q11
C. 10811.2
D. 11q10-2
Answer: C
389. X-linked adrenoleukodystrophy is
A. Fatty acid disorder
B. Lysosomal storage disorder
C. Mucoplysaccharridoses
D. Glycogen defect disorder
Answer: A
390. Endothelial molecule involved in rolling
is A. ICAM 1
B. VCAM 1
C. CD 31
D. CD 34
Answer: D
391. Stain used for tubulin is
A. Luna stain
B. Cajal stain
C. SiR stain
D. Masson’s trichrome
Answer: C
392. Folding defect is associated with which disease
A. Parkinson’s disease
B. Marfan syndrome
C. Acute intermittent porphyria
D. Wermer syndrome
Answer: A
393. Marker for neuroblastoma among the following is?
A. NMP 22
B. Chromogranin A
C. LDH
D. 32 microglobulin
Answer: B
394. Vasodilatation following endothelial damage is due to ?
A. Histamine
B. IL-2
C. TGF-3
D. FGF
Answer: A
395. Least desmoplastic breast carcinoma is
A. Ductal
B. Lobular
C. Tubular
D. Medullary
Answer: B
396. Metastasis to thyroid comes from which primary site of malignancy?
A. Liver
B. Testis
C. Prostate
D. Kidney
Answer: D
397. Choroid metastasis is associated most commonly with?
A. Gastric carcinoma
B. Renal carcinoma
C. Brain tumor
D. Bone tumor
Answer: B
398. All are associated with diabetic gangrene except?
A. Wet gangrene
B. Dry gangrene
C. Gas gangrene
D. Fournier’s gangrene
Answer: C
399. Stain used for staining the nucleus is?
A. Safranin
B. Fast green
C. Hematoxylin
D. Erythrosine
Answer: C
400. Primary granules contain which enzyme?
A. Myeloperoxidase
B. Hydrolases
C. Lactoferrin
D. Phospholipase A2
Answer: A
401. Peroxidase enzyme found in neutrophills is used for
A. Macrophage activation
B. Chemotactic agent
C. Microbial killing
D. Vasodilatation
Answer: C
402. Penile carcinoma is usually?
A. Squamous cell carcinoma
B. Basal cell carcinoma
C. Adenocarcinoma
D. Small cell carcinoma
Answer: A
403. Delayed umbilical cord detachment leukocytosis is seen in?
A. Leukocyte adhesion deficiency
B. Chronic granulomatous disease
C. Severe combined immunodeficiency
D. None of the above
Answer: A
404. Collar button ulcer is found in?
A. Ulcerative colitis
B. Crohn’s disease
C. Shigella
D. All of the above
Answer: D
405. Phlegmonous gastritis occurs due to?
A. H. pylori
B. E. coli
C. C. jejuni
D. Cl. Tetani
Answer: B
406. Decrease in plasma osmotic pressure is cause of edema in?
A. CHF
B. DVT
C. Nephrotic syndrome
D. None
Answer: C
407. False about Patterson-Kelly-Brown syndrome is?
A. Anemia
B. Esophageal webs
C. Glossitis
D. Risk factor for adenocarcinoma
Answer: D
408. Normal time taken for scar formation after injury is?
A. 2 weeks
B. 3 weeks
C. 4 weeks
D. 5 weeks
Answer: C
409. Vitamin deficiency associated with cystic fibrosis is
A. K
B. B6
C. C
D. B12
Answer: D
410. Which type of healing occurs in an incisional wound with infection?
A. Primary
B. Delayed primary
C. Secondary
D. Tertiary
Answer: C
411. APC gene is involved in?
A. Colorectal carcinoma
B. Gastric carcinoma
C. Gastric lymphoma
D. Esophageal adenocarcinoma
Answer: A
412. Gene for embryogenic stem cell is
A. Oct-4
B. Nanog
C. GJA I
D. All of the above
Answer: D
413. Complement mediated hypersensitivity reaction is?
A. Type -1 hypersensitivity
B. Type -2 hypersensitivity
C. Type -4 hypersensitivity
D. None
Answer: B
414. T-cell mediated disease is?
A. Asthma
B. Myasthenia gravis
C. SLE
D. Sarcoidosis
Answer: D
415. Type 4 hypersensitivity reaction to TB antigen is similar to which of the following?
A. Serum sickness
B. Asthma
C. Myasthenia gravis
D. Temporal arteritis
Answer: D
416. Non IgE mediated anaphylactic reaction includes
A. Ig G
B. Ig M
C. Compliments
D. All of the above
Answer: D
417. Total colonic aganglionosis is a variant of?
A. Crohn’s disease
B. Ulcerative colitis
C. Hirschsprung’s disease
D. Tropical sprue
Answer: C
418. MHC1 is involved in?
A. Tumor lysis
B. Mixed leukocyte reaction
C. Autoimmune disease susceptibility
D. All of the above
Answer: A
419. Which disease is diagnosed by jejunal biopsy?
A. Celiac disease
B. Intestinal lymphoma
C. Argentaffinoma of intestine
D. Tropical sprue
Answer: B
420. CD4 is associated with HLA?
A. HLA 1
B. HLA 2
C. HLA 3
D. All of the above
Answer: B
421. All are true about Toll like receptors except?
A. Recognize microbial molecules
B. Activation of immune system
C. Regulation of calcium channel
D. Activation of transcription factors
Answer: C
422. Blood group most commonly associated with gastric carcinoma is?
A. Blood Group 0
B. Blood group A
C. Blood group AB
D. Blood group B
Answer: B
423. The most common organ to be involved in the acute phase of Graft vs host disease is?
A. Bone marrow
B. Skin
C. Liver
D. Gut
Answer: B
424. Autoimmune gastritis is associated with deficiency of vitamin?
A. A
B. B12
C. C
D. D
Answer: B
425. Normal value of CD4:CD8 ratio is
A. 0.5
B. 1
C. 1.5
D. 2
Answer: D
426. Normally squamo-columnar junction is usually located at
A. Distal 2-3 cms of esophagus
B. Proximal 2-3 cms of stomach
C. In esophagus more than 3cms proximal to GEJ
D. None of the above
Answer: B
427. Carcinoma associated most commonly with upper one third of esophagus is
A. Adenocarcinoma
B. Squamous cell Carcinoma
C. Adeno-squamous Carcinoma
D. Leiomyosarcoma
Answer: B
428. Anti Jo-1 antibodies are a feature associated with?
A. SLE
B. Systemic sclerosis
C. Polymyositis
D. Rheumatoid arthritis
Answer: C
429. HLA marker associated with diabetes mellitus type 1 is
A. B 7
B. DR 4
C. DQ 3
D. DQ 4
Answer: B
430. The zonal necrosis most commonly affected in chronic passive hepatic congestion is?
A. Central
B. Peripheral
C. Mid zonal
D. None
Answer: A
431. What is responsible for regeneration of liver cells?
A. HGF
B. VEGF
C. TGF-13
D. IFN-y
Answer: A
432. Expression of a gene is known as?
A. Genotype
B. Phenotype
C. Genome
D. Morphology
Answer: B
433. Group-D chromosome is?
A. Chromosome 3
B. Chromosome 6
C. Chromosome 12
D. Chromosome 15
Answer: D
434. Acute intermittent porphyria is associated with which type of inheritance?
A. Autosomal dominant
B. Autosomal recessive
C. X-linked dominant
D. X-linked recessive
Answer: A
435. Strawberry gall bladder is seen in
A. Cholesterosis
B. Primary sclerosing cholangitis
C. Cholestasis
D. Primary billiary cirrhosis
Answer: A
436. Inheritance associated with congenital adrenal hyperplasia
A. AR
B. AD
C. XR
D. XD
Answer: A
437. True about RCC is?
A. Most common site is lower lobe of kidney
B. Most common variety is papillary type
C. Invasion of renal vein is more common than renal artery
D. Most common site of metastasis is lymph nodes
Answer: C
438. Chronic bronchitis is associated with?
A. Increase in number of glands without any change in size
B. Bronchiolitis obliterans
C. Decrease in Reid index
D. Only large airways are involved
Answer: B
439. On polarising microscopy, refractile body in the centre of granuloma is seen in?
A. Sarcoidosis
B. Silicosis
C. Tuberculosis
D. Asbestosis
Answer: B
440. Most common type of pneumoconiosis, associated with TB is?
A. Silicosis
B. Bysinosis
C. Asbestosis
D. Baggassosis
Answer: A
441. Most common cause of chylothorax is?
A. Trauma
B. Lymphoma
C. Left-sided heart failure
D. Infections
Answer: B
442. Inheritance associated with fragile Xsyndrome is
A. Autosomal dominant
B. Autosomal recessive
C. X-linked dominant
D. X-linked recessive
Answer: C
443. Which type of paraneoplastic syndrome is most commonly associated with lung carcinoma?
A. SIADH
B. Gynaecomastia
C. Acanthosis nigricans
D. Hypocalcaemia
Answer: A
444. Metastasis to lungs come most commonly from
A. Breast carcinoma
B. Brain carcinoma
C. Bone carcinoma
D. Melanoma
Answer: A
445. Deficiency of p53 mutation is maximum in which lung carcinoma?
A. Small cell carcinoma
B. Squamous cell carcinoma
C. Adenocarcinoma
D. Lymphoma
Answer: B
446. In allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis, the location of lesions is
A. Pleura
B. Bronchi and bronchioles
C. Alveoli
D. All of the above
Answer: B
447. HOX gene is associated with
A. Cranio-caudal development
B. Brain development
C. Teeth formation
D. All of the above
Answer: A
448. Most common cancer found in coal mine workers
A. Anal canal
B. Testicular
C. Lung
D. Liver
Answer: C
449. Chromosome for ABO gene is?
A. 9q
B. 10p
C. 11 q
D. 12p
Answer: A
450. Pink puffers are associated with?
A. Emphysema
B. Chronic bronchitis
C. Pneumonia
D. Bronchiectasis
Answer: A
451. Granulomatous lung disease is caused by?
A. Hypersensitivity pneumonitis
B. Sarcoma
C. Bronchogenic carcinoma
D. Bronchogenic cyst
Answer: A
452. TEL-AML 1 fusion is associated with?
A. CLL
B. CML
C. ALL
D. AML
Answer: C
453. Cag A gene is associated with
A. Hepatocellular carcinoma
B. Esophageal carcinoma
C. MALT lymphoma
D. Lung carcinoma
Answer: C
454. Dutcher bodies are seen in?
A. Brain
B. Liver
C. Spleen
D. Bone marrow
Answer: D
455. Trinucleotide sequence associated with spino-cerebellar ataxia is?
A. CTG
B. CUG
C. GGG
D. CAG
Answer: D
456. CA-125 is?
A. Mucin glycoprotein
B. Carcinoma transmigration antigen
C. Mucopolysaccharide
D. Lipid
Answer: A
457. Li-fraumani syndrome occurs due to mutation in gene?
A. p53
B. p16
C. p41
D. p12
Answer: A
458. Most common tumor suppressor gene involved in cancer genesis is?
A. Rb
B. p53
C. p16
D. p73
Answer: B
459. Left side shift in Arneth’s count is seen in?
A. Megaloblastic anemia
B. Septicemia
C. TB
D. Liver disease
Answer: C
460. All are pre-malignant conditions except
A. Anaplasia
B. Metaplasia
C. Hamartoma
D. Dysplasia
Answer: C
461. Maximum life of transfused RBCs is
A. 110-120 days
B. 80-100 days
C. 60-80 days
D. 50-60 days
Answer: B
462. Soft wood exposure leads to
A. Nasal adenocarcinoma
B. Skin cancer
C. Liver cancer
D. Bladder cancer
Answer: A
463. Which test is used for both intrinsic and common clotting pathways?
A. Thrombin time
B. Partial thromboplastin time
C. Ristocetin agglutination test
D. FDPs
Answer: B
464. At which cell cycle checkpoint is the cell cycle halted if the cell’s DNA is damaged?
A. G I – S
B. S – G2
C. G2 – M
D. GO – GI
Answer: A:C
465. Which of the following is a procoagulant?
A. Thrombomodulin
B. Protein C
C. Protein S
D. Thrombin
Answer: D
466. Immunohistochemical marker for sentinel node biopsy for breast carcinoma is?
A. Cytokeratin
B. Vimentin
C. Calretinin
D. CD45
Answer: A
467. Scavenger receptors are for?
A. Oxidized LDL
B. Reduced LDL
C. HDL
D. VLDL
Answer: A
468. Characteristic histopathological feature of rheumatic heart failure is
A. Aschoff’s nodule
B. Mc Callumn patch
C. Bread & butter pericarditis
D. Shaggy vegetation
Answer: A
469. Not a feature of G-6PD deficiency?
A. Intravascular hemolysis
B. Oxidative stress
C. Membrane defect
D. Bite cells
Answer: C
470. Prosthetic valves are predisposed to
A. Thromboembolism
B. Infection
C. Hemolysis
D. All of the above
Answer: D
471. Most frequent time period between myocardial infarction and subsequent myocardial rupture is
A. 3-4 days
B. 4-8 days
C. 1-3 weeks
D. 3-6 weeks
Answer: A
472. Heinz bodies are removed by?
A. Macrophages
B. Lymphocytes
C. Neutrophils
D. Fibroblasts
Answer: A
473. Strawberry gums are seen in
A. Goodpasteur’s syndrome
B. Classic polyarteritis nodosa
C. Wegener’s granulomatosis
D. Kawasaki syndrome
Answer: C
474. Mutation in protein associated with restrictive cardiomyopathy?
A. Myosin regulatory proteins
B. Myosin binding protein-C
C. Troponin I
D. Tropomyosin
Answer: C
475. In apoptosis, protein hydrolysis is due to activation of
A. lipases
B. Transcarboxylase
C. Catalase
D. Caspases
Answer: D
476. Execution caspases of apoptosis are
A. Caspase 1 & 3
B. Caspase 3 & 5
C. Caspase 1 & 5
D. Caspase 3 & 7
Answer: D
477. Which of the following is not a free radical scavenger
A. Glutathione peroxidase
B. Superoxide dismutase
C. Catalase
D. Xanthine oxidase
Answer: D
478. Cellular swelling with blebs and myelin figures are the changes seen in
A. Reversible cell injury
B. Irreversible cell injury
C. Metaplasia
D. Anaplasia
Answer: A
479. Endothelial molecule participating in rolling is
A. CD 34
B. CD 65
C. CD 56
D. CD 100
Answer: A
480. What generates intracellular signals when cells are subjected to shear stress
A. Cadherins
B. Selectins
C. Integrins
D. Focal adhesion molecules
Answer: D
481. True about wound healing with primary intention is
A. By day 5 epidermis recovers its normal thickness
B. Intense inflammatory reaction
C. Wound contraction occurs
D. Abundant granulation tissue grows
Answer: A
482. The definition of exudate is
A. Extravascular fluid that has a high protein concentration and contains cellular debris
B. Extravascular fluid that has a low protein concentration
C. Extravascular fluid with high glucose concentration
D. Extravascular fluid with low glucose concentration
Answer: A
483. In tuberculosis the cytokine causing fever is
A. ILI
B. IL2
C. IL3
D. IL4
Answer: A
484. Which acute phase reactant induces rouleaux formation
A. C reactive protein
B. Fibrinogen
C. Serum amyloid A
D. IL 1
Answer: B
485. Hyperimmune IgE syndrome is also called
A. Jobs syndrome
B. Wiscott Aldrich syndrome
C. Chediak-Higashi syndrome
D. Digeorge syndrome
Answer: A
486. Complement CI synthesized from
A. Liver
B. Macrophage
C. Intestinal epithelium
D. Endothelium
Answer: C
487. Perform are produced by
A. NK cell
B. Cytotoxic T cell
C. Plasma cell
D. Monocyte
Answer: A
488. Most common known causes of congenital anamolies in humans are
A. Chromosomal aberrations
B. Maternal infections
C. Drugs
D. Irradiation
Answer: A
489. Mesothelioma is positive for which intermediate filament
A. Vimentin
B. Cytokeratin
C. GFAP
D. Desmin
Answer: B
490. Calretinin is used in
A. Mesothelioma
B. Hamartoma
C. Choristoma
D. Chordoma
Answer: A
491. Marker of angiosarcoma is
A. CD 31
B. Cytokeratin
C. Vimentin
D. CD 55
Answer: A
492. Keratinization and pearl formation is characteristic of
A. Squamous cell carcinoma
B. Basal cell carcinoma
C. Melanoma
D. Lymphoma
Answer: A
493. Grade of tumour denotes
A. Degree of differentiation
B. Degree of anaplasia
C. Stage of disease
D. Vascular invasion
Answer: A
494. Carcinoma due to inherited mutation of p53 protooncogene
A. Li fraumeni syndrome
B. Familial adenomatous polyposis
C. Retinoblastoma
D. Osteosarcoma
Answer: A
495. K ras mutation is seen in
A. Pancreatic carcinoma
B. Prostate carcinoma
C. Gastric carcinoma
D. Hepatic carcinoma
Answer: A
496. DIC is seen in all except
A. Carcinoma pancreas
B. Carcinoma prostate
C. Carcinoma lung
D. Carcinoma kidney
Answer: D
497. Histologic finding in hyperplastic arteriosclerosis
A. Concentric layer onion skin lesion
B. Mucinous intimal thickening
C. Fibrinoid atherosclerosis
D. All the above
Answer: D
498. Obliterative endarteritis of the vasa vasorum of aorta is seen in
A. Syphilis
B. Wegener’s
C. Chrug strauss
D. Cold haemoglobinuria
Answer: A
499. Which isoenzyme of LDH is seen in heart
A. LDH1
B. LDH2
C. LDH3
D. LDH4
Answer: A
500. MALToma is located in which layer of gastrointestinal tract
A. Lamina propria
B. Submucosa
C. Muscularispropria
D. Serosa
Answer: A
501. Not an irreversible injury
A. Pyknosis
B. Pyknosis
C. Karyolysis
D. Bleb formation
Answer: D
502. Hyaline degeneration is found in
A. MI
B. Parkinson’s’ disease
C. Yellow fever hepatitis
D. Basophilic cell of pituitary
Answer: C
503. Lipofuscin is
A. Wear and tear pigment
B. Fat deposits
C. Blood pigment
D. Form of calcification
Answer: A
504. Antiapoptotic gene
A. FLIP
B. P53
C. BAX
D. BIM
Answer: A
505. Skin involvement along with collar stud ulceration in intestine on radiography. Diagnosis is
A. TB intestine
B. Ulcerative colitis
C. Intestinal Amebiasis
D. Crohn’s disease
Answer: B
506. Solution currently used for liver preservation for transplant is
A. UW solution
B. IGL solution
C. Kyoto ET solution
D. Ross Marshal Citrate solution
Answer: A
507. Fibrosis associated with liver cirrhosis is mediated by
A. PDGF
B. IFN-y
C. ICAM-1
D. PcAM-l
Answer: A
508. Not a apoptotic gene
A. P53
B. Bax
C. Mcl-1
D. n-myc
Answer: D
509. Which of the following is false regarding carcinoid tumor ?
A. Neuroendocrine tumor
B. Most common site is lung
C. Associated with serotonin production
D. Potentially malignant tumor
Answer: B
510. Caseating necrosis occurs in
A. Brain
B. liver
C. kidney
D. lung
Answer: D
511. Spread of infection causes
A. Fibrinoid necrosis
B. Fat necrosis
C. Liquifactive necrosis
D. Coagulative necrosis
Answer: C
512. COXtype 3 is a product ofa) COX I gene
B. COX2gene
C. COX 3 gene
D. None ofthe above
Answer: A
513. Diabetic foot is associated with following type of gangrene
A. Dry gangrene
B. Wet gangrene
C. Gas gangrene
D. Fournier’s gangrene
Answer: B
514. Unfolded protein metabolism is associated with
A. Endoplasmic reticulum
B. Golgi apparatus
C. Mitochondria
D. None of the above
Answer: A
515. Not an example of excess tissue growth
A. Granulation tissue
B. Neoplasia
C. Hyperplasia
D. Fibrosis
Answer: A
516. 1st mediator of inflammation to be released is
A. Nitric oxide
B. PAF
C. Histamine
D. IL-1
Answer: C
517. Which of the following is potassium Channelopathy
A. Hypokalemic periodic paralysis
B. Hyperkalemic periodic paralysis
C. Episodic ataxia I
D. Long QT-syndrome
Answer: A
518. Rolling of leucocytes on endothelial cells is mediated by
A. ICAM-1
B. (3, integrin
C. IL-8
D. P- selectin
Answer: D
519. Perioperative shock is an example of
A. Hypovolemic shock
B. Septic shock
C. Cardiogenic shock
D. Neurogenic shock
Answer: A
520.Which of the following is not a part of ECM ?
A. Lectin
B. Fibronectin
C. Laminin
D. Proteoglycans
Answer: A
521. Calrexin and calreticulin are
A. Glycoproteins
B. Chaperons
C. Tumor markers
D. Enzymes
Answer: B
522. Which of the following is derived from fibroblast cells ?
A. TGF-13
B. MMP2
C. Collagen
D. Angiopoietin
Answer: C
523. HDL receptor is A. SR-BI
B. LDLR
C. HDLR
D. SR-82
Answer: A
524. Which of the following enhances acute phase response ?
A. a-2 microglobulin
B. Transferrin
C. Albumin
D. Retinal binding protein
Answer: A
525. IFN-gamma is produced by
A. Neutrophills
B. Macrophages
C. T – cells
D. B – cells
Answer: C
526. Homer rosette is seen in
A. Neurobastoma
B. Nephroblastoma
C. Hepatoma
D. Ependymoma
Answer: A
527. Extremities are warm in which type of shock
A. Hypovolemic shock
B. Neurogenic shock
C. Anaphylactic shock
D. Cardiogenic shock
Answer: B
528. Lysosome with undigested particle inside is known as
A. Residual body
B. Phagosome
C. Phagolysosome
D. Autophagosome
Answer: A
529. HLA-Cw6 is associated with
A. Myatshenia gravis
B. Behcet’s disease
C. Pemphigus vulgaris
D. Psoriasis vulgaris
Answer: D
530. Prusian blue detects?
A. Ferric iron
B. Ferrous iron
C. Glycogen
D. Lipids
Answer: A
531. Sezary cells show which tlpe of nucleus
A. Pleomorphic
B. Round
C. Eosinophillic
D. Cerebriform
Answer: D
532. MHC-2 is present in all except
A. Cortical macrophages
B. Medullary m acrophages
C. Cortical epithelial cells
D. Medullary epithelial cells
Answer: B
533. B cells are located in which region of lymph nodes
A. Paracortical region
B. Cortical follicles
C. Medullar sinuses
D. Subcapsular region
Answer: B
534. PSGN is an example of which type of hyper sensitivity
A. Type -1 hypersensitivity
B. Type -2 hypersensitivity
C. Type -3 hypersensitivity
D. Type -4 hypersensitivity
Answer: C
535. Number of criteria for HLA matching are
A. 10
B. 4
C. 16
D. 22
Answer: A
536. All of the following are features of granulomatous thyroiditis except?
A. Hyperthyroidism
B. Hypothyroidism
C. Painless
D. Giant cells on histology
Answer: C
537. Organ with least chance of rejection
A. Blood
B. Kidney
C. Heart
D. Liver
Answer: D
538. Mc type of graft rejection is
A. Hyperacute
B. Acute
C. Chronic
D. Acute on chronic
Answer: C
539. In follicular carcinoma chromosomal translocation is?
A. PAXS – PPARTI
B. RET – PTC
C. ALK – NMPI
D. IAK – TEL
Answer: A
540. True about serum sickness is
A. Type 2 hypersensitivity
B. Can lead to leukocytoclastic vasculitis
C. Hypercomplementemia
D. Can occur due to homologous antigen
Answer: B
541. Most lethal combination is
A. Autosomal monosomy
B. Chromosomal monosomy
C. Autosomal trisomy
D. Chromosomal trisomy
Answer: A
542. NotafeatureofPSGN
A. HTN
B. Increased urea
C. Increased creatinine
D. Normal C3 level
Answer: D
543. All of the following are true about Down syndrome except
A. Incidence of Robertsonian translocation is 1:1000
B. Extra chromosome is of maternal origin
C. Most common cause is trisomy 21
D. Mosaicism 21 has no association with maternal age
Answer: A
544. Hypophosphatemic rickets is
A. AR
B. AD
C. XR
D. XD
Answer: D
545. Irregular scarred kidney with pelvic dilatation is seen with
A. Chronic pyelonephritis
B. Polycystic kidney
C. Renalarterystenosis
D. Tuberculosis of kidney
Answer: A
546. Structure of chromosomes is studied by?
A. C-banding
B. G-banding
C. Q-banding
D. Brd V-staining
Answer: B
547. Location of gene on chromosome is identified by
A. Karyotyping
B. Genetic mapping
C. Microarray
D. Genomic imprinting
Answer: B
548. Tyrosine kinase receptor is associated with proto-oncogene
A. RAS
B. MYC
C. RET
D. RB
Answer: C
549. IgA nephropathyis not associatedwith?
A. Focal Mesengial proliferation
B. Gross hematuria within 1-2 daYs
C. On immunofluorescence deposits contain both IgA and IgG
D. Increased compliment level
Answer: D
550. Characteristic feature of IgA nephropathy
A. Serum compliment level is normal
B. More common in old age
C. It is a tFpe of membranoproliferative GN
D. Gross hematuria presents after l0 days
Answer: A
551. Which of the following has tumor promoting effect?
A. BRAC
B. RB
C. MYC
D. p16
Answer: C
552. CEA is
A. Hormone
B. Glycoprotein
C. Enzyme
D. Tumor associated protein
Answer: B
553. CEA is increased in which nonneoplastic condition
A. Hemolytic anemia
B. Pancreatitis
C. BPH
D. Pregnancy
Answer: A:B
554. Most common tnre of renal carcinoma is
A. Clear cell type
B. Chromophobe type
C. Papillarytype
D. Tubulartype
Answer: A
555. Carcinoma originating from glands is called
A. Basal cell carcinoma
B. Squamous cell carcinoma
C. Adenocarcinoma
D. Fibrosarcoma
Answer: C
556. Most common histological form of lung Ca that metastasizes is
A. Squamous cell CA
B. Adenocarcinoma
C. Alveolar-carcinoma
D. Small cell carcinoma
Answer: A
557. Hematological carcinoma is commonly linked to
A. Nicotine
B. Benzene
C. Lithium
D. Alcohol
Answer: B
558. Elastic fibers of tunica media are secreted by
A. Fibroblast
B. Endothelium
C. Smooth muscle
D. External lamina
Answer: C
559. Level of which of the following is not elevated in heart disease
A. LDH
B. 5-nucleotidase
C. SGOT
D. ALP
Answer: B
560. Radiotherapy induced radiation pneumonitis mediated by all of the following except
A. TNF-c
B. PAF
C. TGF-p
D. NF-kB
Answer: B
561. Which of the following does not predispose to leukemia?
A. Genetic disorder
B. Alcohol
C. Smoking
D. Chemical exposure
Answer: B
562. Routine Rh typing includes testing?
A. A antigen
B. B antigen
C. C antigen
D. D antigen
Answer: D
563. Ristocetin testing von Willebrand disease shows?
A. Increased agglutination
B. Decreasedagglutination
C. Normalagglutination
D. No agglutination
Answer: B
564. Osmotic fragility test is commonly used for
A. Iron deficienry anemia
B. Megaloblastic anemia
C. Hereditary spherocYtosis
D. Aplastic anemia
Answer: C
565. Warm antibody in AIHA is
A. IgE
B. IgM
C. IgG
D. IgD
Answer: C
566. What is true about sickle cell
A. Sickling occurs both in heterozygous and homozygous state
B. Fetal hemoglobin facilitates Sickling
C. Sickling is reversible with oxygenation
D. Sickling Leads to decreased MCHC
Answer: C
567. Distinguishing feature of reticulocyte is
A. Constitute 10% of the red cells
B. No nucleus
C. Smaller in size then RBCs
D. Mature in lymPh nodes
Answer: B
568. Normal Myeloid – erythroid ratio is
A. l:l
B. 2:l
C. 3:l
D. 4:1
Answer: C
569. hL/h blood group
A. lacks H- antigen
B. lacks A-antigen
C. lacks B- antigen
D. All of the above
Answer: D
570. Amount of blood loss in Stage I of haemorrhagic shock is
A. <10%
B. <20%
C. <30%
D. <40%
Answer: B
571. Which type of artery is most commonly involved in PAN?
A. Muscular
B. Pulmonary
C. Skin
D. GIT
Answer: A
572. Obliterative endarteritis in vasa vasorum is seen in
A. Hypertension
B. Tuberculosis
C. Syphilis
D. SLE
Answer: C
573. Heart failure cells are seen in
A. Pulmonary edema
B. Pulmonary infarction
C. Pulmonary abscess
D. PulmonaryTB
Answer: A
574. Heart failure cells are
A. Neutrophils
B. Macrophages
C. Lymphocytes
D. Basophils
Answer: B
575. Lines of Zahn are seen in
A. Heart
B. Lung
C. Liver
D. Kidney
Answer: A
576. Which protein is defective in dilatated cardiomyopathy?
A. Myosin
B. Troponin
C. Tropomyosin
D. Dystrophin
Answer: D
577. Which of the following is seen in young’s syndrome ?
A. Azoospermia
B. Bronchiectasis
C. Infertility
D. All of the above
Answer: D
578. Amyloidosis occurs in all except
A. Tuberculosis
B. Chronic bronchitis
C. Osteomyelitis
D. Bronchiectasis
Answer: B
579. Most common cause of death in SLE in children
A. Lupus nephritis
B. Lupus cerebrits
C. Libman sacks endocarditis
D. Anemia and infections
Answer: A
580. Small posterior fossa seen in ?
A. Arnold chiari malformation
B. Dandy walker
C. Medulloblastoma
D. Schizencephaly
Answer: A
581. Incorrect about HIV associated nephropathy ?
A. Proteinuria
B. Shrunken kidneys
C. 15% cases show mesengial proliferation
D. Develops when CD4<200
Answer: B
582. Pyogenic granulom true A/E
A. Bacterial infection
B. Bleeding
C. Benign tumour
D. Capillary hemangioma
Answer: A
583. Visceral aneurysm is most commonly seen in
A. Splenic
B. Renal
C. Hepatic
D. Coronary
Answer: A
584. All of the following provide protection against malaria except
A. Duffy blood group
B. Sickle cell anaemia
C. Hereditary spherocytosis
D. PNH
Answer: D
585. Thorium induced tumor
A. Angiosarcoma of liver
B. Renal cell carcinoma
C. Lymphoma
D. Astrocytoma
Answer: A
586. Most common malignancy of fallopian tube
A. SCC
B. Serous CA
C. Teratoma
D. Chorioca
Answer: B
587. Warthin finkeldey cells are seen in
A. Measles
B. Rubella
C. Rabies
D. Typhoid
Answer: A
588. CD59 marker of which disease
A. PNH
B. PTEN
C. BRR
D. Cowden syndrome
Answer: A
589. Opsonin is
A. C3a
B. C3b
C. C5a
D. C6
Answer: B
590. Bernard–Soulier syndrome due to deficiency of
A. Gp 2b/3a
B. Gp 1b
C. vWf
D. TNF
Answer: B
591. Cowden syndrome
A. P53
B. PTEN
C. Rb
D. Ras
Answer: B
592. Chromosome involved in myotonic dystrophy is
A. Chromosome 19
B. Chromosome 20
C. Chromosome 21
D. Chromosome 22
Answer: A
593. TRALI occurs within how many hours of transfusion?
A. 48 Hrs
B. 72 Hrs
C. 6 Hrs
D. 12 Hrs
Answer: C
594. Kidney responds to shock by
A. Decreases renal blood flow
B. Increases afferent arteriole resistance
C. GFR remains unaltered
D. Perfusion of kidney increases
Answer: B
595. Which of the following is epithelial tumour of stomach?
A. Carcinoid
B. Lymphoma
C. GIST
D. Gastric adenocarcinoma
Answer: D
596. Identify an X linked disorder?
A. Color blindness
B. Thalassemia
C. Azoospermia
D. Retinitis Pigmentosa
Answer: A
597. H And L variety seen in
A. Mixed cellularity hodgkin
B. Lymphocyte depleted
C. Lymphocyte predominance
D. Nodular sclerosis
Answer: C
598. Stellate granuloma seen in
A. Sarcoidosis
B. Cat scratch disease
C. Cryptococcosis
D. Histoplasmosis
Answer: B
599. Which best explains “Flipping effect”?
A. LDH 1 > LDH 2
B. LDH2 > LDH1
C. LDH 2 > LDH 3
D. LDH 3 > LDH 2
Answer: A
600. Nude mice is not resistant to xenograft due to absence of
A. B cell
B. T cell
C. Both b and t cell
D. None
Answer: B
601. Anaplasia is
A. Changing one type of epithelium to another
B. Nuclear chromatin
C. Lack of differentiation
D. Morphological changes
Answer: C
602. Which level of prolactin definitely suggest prolactinoma?
A. 300 ng/ml
B. 150 ng/ml
C. 200 ng/ml
D. 100 ng/ml
Answer: C
603. Laxative abuse causes which of the following renal stones ?
A. Uric acid
B. Ammonium urate
C. Struvite
D. Ca oxalate
Answer: B
604. Which of the following can result in dactylitis
A. Hemophilia
B. Von willebrand disease 1
C. Measles
D. Sickle Cell Anemia
Answer: D
605. Which chromosome is responsible for the production of MIF?
A. Chromosome 16
B. Chromosome 22
C. X Chromosome
D. Y chromosome
Answer: D
606. Which of the following condition is NOT caused by Parvovirus B19?
A. Roseola infantum
B. Aplastic anemia in sickle cell disease
C. Fetal hydrops
D. Erythema infectiosum
Answer: A
607. Which is true regarding ataxia telangiectasia:
A. Increase in AFP
B. Increases the risk of squamous cell carcinoma
C. Autosomal dominant
D. None of above
Answer: A
608. Term pathology refers to:
A. Work
B. Function
C. Details
D. Explains
Answer: A
609. Leiden thrombophilia is caused by mutational deficiency of which of the following factors?
A. Factor V
B. Factor VII
C. Factor IX
D. Factor X
Answer: A
610. A boy presented with multiple non suppurative osteomyelitis with sickle cell anaemia. What will be the causative organism?
A. Salmonella
B. S. aureus
C. H. influenzae
D. Enterobacter species
Answer: A
611. Positive acid Schiff macrophages seen in ?
A. Whipples disease
B. Crohns disease
C. AIDS
D. None of the above
Answer: A
612. What is the cause of myocardial shock other than MI ?
A. acute mitral regurgitation
B. ventricular septal rupture
C. isolated right ventricular shock
D. all of the above
Answer: D
613. WHICH IS NOT CORRECT:
A. MRI needed to access haemorrhage
B. GCS assessment helps in prognosis
C. Haematoma must be operated
D. all of the above
Answer: C
614. Genital warts are caused by which virus?
A. Herpes simplex
B. Human papilloma
C. Cytomegalovirus
D. Varicella zoster
Answer: B
615. Which metal results in “Saturnine gout” formation?
A. Cadmium
B. Lead
C. Beryllium
D. Mercury
Answer: B
616. Reed sternberg cells are found in
A. Hodgkin’s disease
B. Sickle cell anaemia
C. Thalassemia
D. CML
Answer: A
617. Marked bleeding is seen in which of following conditions?
A. VMA disease
B. Haemophilia A
C. Haemophilia B
D. ALL
Answer: D
618. Which of the following true regarding Haemophilia A
A. Serum levels of factor VIII are decreased
B. Deficiency of factor IX
C. PT increased
D. FIT decreased
Answer: A
619. Which of the following is seen in seropositive rheumatoid arthritis?
A. Multiple joints affected
B. Symmetrical joint symptoms
C. Joint pain and swelling
D. All
Answer: D
620. Which of the following is not seen in Anterior mediastinum
A. Thyroid tumour
B. Thymoma
C. Lymphoma
D. Neurogenic tumor
Answer: D
621. Struvite stone is caused by which metal?
A. Magnesium
B. Calcium
C. sodium & potassium
D. both (A. & (B.
Answer: A
622. Which of the following statements about Graves disease is false?
A. Results in hyperthyroidism
B. Autoimmune disorder
C. Common in Male
D. Referred as Toxic diffuse goitre
Answer: C
623. Which of the following is false about Alzheimer’s disease?
A. One in 10 people age 65 and older has Alzheimer’s disease
B. Alzheimer’s disease is curable
C. Cause dementia
D. All of the above
Answer: B
624. Which is not included in AIDS related complex?
A. Ectopic pregnancy
B. Recurrent genital candidiasis
C. Generalised lymphadenopathy
D. Chronic diarrhea
Answer: A
625. Which of the following are the risk factor for cutaneous lymphoma?
A. Age
B. Gender
C. Weakened immune system
D. All
Answer: D
626. A 30-year-old male came with complaints of swelling around the knee joint. Histopathological examination of the swelling demonstrated many giant cells interspersed with mononuclear cells. What is the probable diagnosis
A. Osteosarcoma
B. Ewing’s sarcoma
C. Giant cell tumour
D. Chondrosarcoma
Answer: C
627. 30 years old came with complaints of easy fatigability, exertional dyspnoea, and weight loss. She also complains of frequent falls. physical examination revealed there was a bilateral decrease in vibration sense. Her haemoglobin levels were 8.2g%. She was treated with folate. Her anaemia improved but neurological symptoms worsened. Which of the following is the most probable reason for her condition?
A. Folate not absorbed
B. Unmasked pyridoxine deficiency
C. Deficiency of folate reductase in CNS
D. Folate therapy caused rapid use of Vit B12 stores aggravating
symptoms
Answer: D
628. A 30-year-old woman presents with thyroid swelling. On investigations, her TSH levels are found to be elevated. Postoperative reports showed lymphocytic infiltration and hurthle cells. A most probable diagnosis is?
A. Graves disease
B. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
C. Follicular carcinoma
D. Medullary carcinoma thyroid
Answer: B
629. Which of the following will be seen on cardiac biopsy of a patient who had a post MI reperfusion injury?
A. Waviness of fibres
B. Eosinophilic contraction bands
C. Neutrophils in cardiac cells
D. Swelling of cells
Answer: B
630. Loss of foot process is classical in case of?
A. Membranous glomerulitis
B. Segmental glomerulosclerosis
C. IgA nephropathy
D. Diabetic nephropathy
Answer: B
631. Which of the following factors play a major role in the initiation of thrombus formation?
A. Vasoconstriction
B. Coagulation cascade activation
C. Platelets activation
D. Endothelial injury
Answer: D
632. A 33-year-old man presents with a 5week history of calf pain, swelling, and low-grade fever. Serum levels of creatinine kinase are elevated. A muscle biopsy reveals numerous eosinophils also she had peripheral blood eosinophilia. Which of the following interleukins is primarily responsible for the increase in eosinophils in this patient?
A. IL 2
B. IL 4
C. IL 1
D. IL6
Answer: B
633. Which of the following is true about PAN?
A. Microscopy shows fibrinoid necrosis in large arteries
B. ANCA is positive
C. 30% of people have HbsAg positive
D. Patient have hypogammaglobulinemia
Answer: C
634. A 23-year-old male presented with a history of fatigue and tiredness. On investigation, he was found to have Hb values of 9gm%, MCV of 101 FL. peripheral smear examination showed microcytic RBC and hyper segmented neutrophils. Which is most probable aetiology
A. Lead poisoning
B. Iron deficiency anemia
C. Chronic alcoholism
D. Hemolytic anemia
Answer: A
635. What is the main feature of chemotaxis as observed in white blood cells?
A. Increased random movement of neutrophils
B. Increased adhesiveness to intima
C. Increased phagocytosis
D. Unidirectional locomotion of neutrophils
Answer: D
636. Which of the following anticancer drugs are competitive inhibitors of tyrosine kinase –
A. Imatinib and sunitinib
B. Letrozole
C. Bicalutamide
D. Fulvestrant
Answer: A
637. 20 years old man presented with the complaint of swelling of the wrist for the last two years. histopathological examination showed spindle-shaped cells and verocay bodies what is the diagnosis?
A. Lipoma
B. Dermoid cyst
C. Neuro fibroma
D. Schwannoma
Answer: D
